Results 1 - 7 of 7
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Servant7 | 30489 | ||
Greetings in the Lord, Matthew says angles are not given in marriage, it does not say they cannot. The debate rageing over "sons of God" in Genisis need not rage, Moses, when writeing Genisis did not say "sons of God", he said "Bene Ha Elohim"(Hebrew), this word refrences heavenly bodies, not humans. The only other time this word(s) in Hebrew is used in the Tanak(old testament) is in refrence to angles. Angles are "created" beings, but let's not forget, a whole group of them fell with Lucifer, by this logic, that wasn't possible until it happend. Sons of God is again stated this way in Job. I encourage you to seek this out, pray about it, then you and i will share our findings together. Always in Christ, Servant7 |
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2 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 30490 | ||
Greetings Servant7, I disagree with you about the "sons of God", and I have heard your interpretation on just who the "sons of God" are on this Forum over and over and over again, and its absolutely no coincidence that I will again attempt to dislodge the theory that Genesis 6:4 is speaking of angels when it mentions "the sons of God", but it is rather speaking of the Godly line of Seth. I know which Hebrew words are being used and I know what Job 1:6 and 38:7 state. I am not in any way "unprepared" for this debate.. :-)However, angels themselves are elect and cannot fall from grace (1 Tim. 5:21). And if you read in Genesis 3 (the fall of man), you see that man does indeed sin against God! With that in mind, it is only comprehensible that the fall of Satan and his angels would either precede or occur at the same time as the fall of man, since the fall of man required that man would be found guilty of sin; meaning that sin would either have to have already occurred in the 'spiritual realm' (Satan's revolt) at the time of man's fall, or that sin occurred in the 'spiritual realm' at the same time that the fall of man occurred, since nothing happens on earth that is not first known of in heaven. Therefore, Satan's revolt in heaven (Rev. 12) had to occur either before or at the fall of man. Also, there is a considerable amount of time that takes place in the events of the world from Genesis 3 to Genesis 6:4! So with this in mind, if Genesis 6:4 is speaking of any 'spirit' at all, then it would have to be demons, not angels, that Genesis 6:4 is speaking of, since angels themselves do not continue to fall from grace! (1 Tim. 5:21) And these demons would have had to inhibit the bodies of men to do such a thing as to procreate, since angels and demons are spirits (Hebrews 1:14). Also, angels are holy (Matt. 25:31, Mark 8:38) and angels do not marry (Matt. 22:30; Mark 12:25; Luke 20:35). I would also state that it was out of pride and envy that Satan and his demons fell, not out of lust for human women! (Ezekiel 28, Isaiah 14) So we have come to the conclusion that if any spiritual force at all was involved in Genesis 6:4, then it was the spiritual force of demons, and not that of angels. So if that is true, then demons had to indwell the bodies of men to procreate with human women, since demons are in themselves spirits (2 Peter 2:4) and reserved for judgment. And if that is true, then demons had to indwell the bodies of men who opened themselves up to them.. But I do not agree with this interpretation (that demons indwelt the 'sons of God'), since neither the Hebrew in this verse speaks of demons nor can demons indwell anything that God possesses or calls his own. Therefore, it cannot be the demons (who inhibited men) who slept with earthly women! The only option that we have left is that the Godly line of Seth (the 'sons of God') began to intermingle with the daughters of the descendents of Cain (the 'daughters of men'), therefore causing the wickedness of man to abound and spread more quickly over the earth. However, you most likely STILL hold to the Hebrew word in Genesis 6:4, claiming that it must be speaking of angels! :-) If that was so, then why doesn't any Bible translation render the phrase "sons of God" in 6:4 as simply "angels", if the Hebrew is so clear?? And also, can you PROVE that Moses wrote both Genesis AND the book of Job? No one can prove that! Therefore, it is quite possible that Job and Genesis were written by two different people who used the same Hebrew word to describe two different things (Godly line of Seth - Gen. 6:4; Angels - Job 1:6). And even if Moses DID write both Job and Genesis, I would still contend that he wasn't referring to angels in Genesis 6:4. And if you want to argue, "well then, where does mythology gets its roots then?", then I will say simply that "Mythology is simply that: myth!" So please, if you still have an argument on Genesis 6:4 that hasn't ALREADY been presented to the likes of this Forum that can shed much more depth and detail to this neverending debate, then please do not delay in sharing that with us so that we can forever end this argument and settle it beyond any doubt! Blessings to you, Nolan |
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3 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Servant7 | 30581 | ||
Greetings in the Lord, If the lines of seth, at the time of Gen 6, were so holy, why 120 years after this fact was the world destroyed in a flood??? only 8 people out of the "noble" lines of seth remained faithful after 120 years??I would suggest all people who truly are seeking after truth test their "traditions" vs. the word. This sad stretch of I Tim 5:21 is exactly why a topic much be researched, and diligently prayed over before it is introduced as doctrine. This section of scripture is the form of an oath about not prefering one brother before another(elders/witnesses, not that angles cannot fall from grace. Jesus did not come in the form of an angle and die, He came as a man. Therefore, angles do not have grace. Consequently, elect here better translates as chosen. Chosen or elected for what? A statement or oath being made before them as a witness? perhaps angles that did keep their first estate. The Bible shows that angles have physical bodies, look at the angles at Sodom and Gahmora, they were physical. An angle one night had dinner with 185,000 samaratins before decimateing them. Oh heck, we have entertained angles unawares. Demons seek embodyment, angles have bodies. Fallen angles, were still angles...therefore, they are as physical. Here is something else to chew on, through scripture prove Angles and Demons are the same. one has a body...one seeks embodyment. There's that tradition again. Further more, why would the lines of seth, lay with the daughter's of men be big news? That's been going on since the garden. By the way... the daughter's of men, I hate to break this to you, is translated a little to loosely. The Hebrew word used here is "Benoth Adam". Better translated, "Daughter's of Adam".Seth is from Adam also. Why would this need be stated here? In closeing, I never stated Moses wrote Job...I do believe he wrote Genesis however. I actually believe there is a possibility that Job is a pre-flood book. This is due to alot of conditions, and animals that are spoken of in this book. One thing we do know though, is Job was actually pened before Gen. Even though Gen is an earlier progression, but The Lord is quite mysterious like that. Brother, I took on the same Joking tone with you, but please realize, as a brother, I hold you in the highest respect. Jesus is the Blood that flows between you and me, and we are the same body. Something i wasn't going to share at this point, but I feel called to.Gen 4:26 is mis- translated, the scripture does not read "Then began Men to call upon the name of the Lord", it actually infers profaneing the name of the Lord. If you think I am Mistaken, please seek this on your own. There was a time I held the same view as you. In Christ Always, Servant7 |
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4 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 30582 | ||
Greetings Servant7, There is absolutely nothing in your post that makes any sense at all. Please go back and read my post carefully, so that you can begin to prepare a worthy response if you would like to continue to support your point of view and keep this going. But so far, you haven't given your persuasion very much support at all. - Nolan |
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5 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Servant7 | 30592 | ||
The Lord Bless You, In future posts I will use simpler language, I do not mean this as a dig, but my point was quite clear. A scripture like I Timothy 5:21 cannot be used to denote angles are under grace, the term there is actually chosen. Bible 101- Always read scriptures, even chapters at times, before and after a scripture to gain true context. My response was to your point of view, not your scripture refrence, since your attempt to work those scriptures into your view is obviously contrived. I humbled myself to you then and I shall now. We are brothers in the shed blood of our redeemer, And rude posts such as the one you sent me here can only divide. reread what i wrote, a few times, there is validity to this. Let Me start over again for us. Hello my brother, it is blessed to share this board with you, and your company. In Christ, Servant7 |
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6 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 30598 | ||
Greetings Servant7, May the Lord bless you as well, and I am thankful that we can come together to have some sense of fellowship on this Forum. However, I still contend that your prior post was anything but "clear." Your Brother in Christ, Nolan |
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7 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Servant7 | 30603 | ||
I've been accused of being Verbose Before:) God Bless and keep you until We share again, In Christ, Servant7 |
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