Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Elijah | 7862 | ||
The sons spoken of in 6:2 are angles that left there proper dewling place (heaven)and came down to marry the daughters of men | ||||||
2 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 7884 | ||
The "sons of God" in Genesis 6:2 are not angels. If you read Genesis 3, then you see the fall of man. If man fell from grace in Genesis 3, then the fall of Satan and his unholy angels had to have happened sometime before (or at) the fall of man. After reading the geneaologies of Genesis 4 and 5, Scripture clearly points out that there is a considerable amount of time between the events in Genesis 3 (fall of man) to the events in Genesis 6 (the multiplying of man on the earth). Since the fall of Satan and his angels had to have already happened or happened at the fall of mankind itself (and by doing so created for Satan and his demons permanent and eternal darkness for judgment (Jude 1:6)), then by interpreting the "sons of God" as angels in Genesis 6:2,4 would suggest that Satan and his angels fell 'twice' from grace, since lusting after human flesh would be a fall from holiness! Satan and his demons fell only once from heaven and the angels that remained loyal to God are forever confirmed in holiness, being loyal to Him forever (1 Timothy 5:21), being 'fixed' in their position as holy angels who minister to those who believe. Also, lust is a sin of the flesh, which is not something that would be the cause of a great spiritual revolt in heaven. The sin that caused the downfall of Satan and his angels was that of pride, since Satan wanted to be "like the Most High".. (Isaiah 14:14) This and other observations are more than enough proof that Genesis 6:4 is referring to the Godly line of Seth (which would prove to be the geneaological line of Christ in Luke 3:38), who began to intermarry with the daughters of men. | ||||||
3 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Servant7 | 30444 | ||
Greetings in the Lord, The angles that fell with satan, are the "sons of God" being refrenced here. The marvelous thing about our English translations are that they are translated. The Hebrew word being used here is "Bene Ha Elohim". This word, every time used in the Tanak refrences angles. ( Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7, to name a few). I hope this helps, In Christ, Servant7 |
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4 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 30448 | ||
Greetings Servant7, I disagree with you about the "sons of God", and I have heard your interpretation on just who the "sons of God" are on this Forum over and over and over again, and its absolutely no coincidence that I will again attempt to dislodge the theory that Genesis 6:4 is speaking of angels when it mentions "the sons of God", but it is rather speaking of the Godly line of Seth. I know which Hebrew words are being used and I know what Job 1:6 and 38:7 state. I am not in any way "unprepared" for this debate.. :-)However, angels themselves are elect and cannot fall from grace (1 Tim. 5:21). And if you read in Genesis 3 (the fall of man), you see that man does indeed sin against God! With that in mind, it is only comprehensible that the fall of Satan and his angels would either precede or occur at the same time as the fall of man, since the fall of man required that man would be found guilty of sin; meaning that sin would either have to have already occurred in the 'spiritual realm' (Satan's revolt) at the time of man's fall, or that sin occurred in the 'spiritual realm' at the same time that the fall of man occurred, since nothing happens on earth that is not first known of in heaven. Therefore, Satan's revolt in heaven (Rev. 12) had to occur either before or at the fall of man. Also, there is a considerable amount of time that takes place in the events of the world from Genesis 3 to Genesis 6:4! So with this in mind, if Genesis 6:4 is speaking of any 'spirit' at all, then it would have to be demons, not angels, that Genesis 6:4 is speaking of, since angels themselves do not continue to fall from grace! (1 Tim. 5:21) And these demons would have had to inhibit the bodies of men to do such a thing as to procreate, since angels and demons are spirits (Hebrews 1:14). Also, angels are holy (Matt. 25:31, Mark 8:38) and angels do not marry (Matt. 22:30; Mark 12:25; Luke 20:35). I would also state that it was out of pride and envy that Satan and his demons fell, not out of lust for human women! (Ezekiel 28, Isaiah 14) So we have come to the conclusion that if any spiritual force at all was involved in Genesis 6:4, then it was the spiritual force of demons, and not that of angels. So if that is true, then demons had to indwell the bodies of men to procreate with human women, since demons are in themselves spirits (2 Peter 2:4) and reserved for judgment. And if that is true, then demons had to indwell the bodies of men who opened themselves up to them.. But I do not agree with this interpretation (that demons indwelt the 'sons of God'), since neither the Hebrew in this verse speaks of demons nor can demons indwell anything that God possesses or calls his own. Therefore, it cannot be the demons (who inhibited men) who slept with earthly women! The only option that we have left is that the Godly line of Seth (the 'sons of God') began to intermingle with the daughters of the descendents of Cain (the 'daughters of men'), therefore causing the wickedness of man to abound and spread more quickly over the earth. However, you most likely STILL hold to the Hebrew word in Genesis 6:4, claiming that it must be speaking of angels! :-) If that was so, then why doesn't any Bible translation render the phrase "sons of God" in 6:4 as simply "angels", if the Hebrew is so clear?? And also, can you PROVE that Moses wrote both Genesis AND the book of Job? No one can prove that! Therefore, it is quite possible that Job and Genesis were written by two different people who used the same Hebrew word to describe two different things (Godly line of Seth - Gen. 6:4; Angels - Job 1:6). And even if Moses DID write both Job and Genesis, I would still contend that he wasn't referring to angels in Genesis 6:4. And if you want to argue, "well then, where does mythology gets its roots then?", then I will say simply that "Mythology is simply that: myth!" So please, if you still have an argument on Genesis 6:4 that hasn't ALREADY been presented to the likes of this Forum that can shed much more depth and detail to this neverending debate, then please do not delay in sharing that with us so that we can forever end this argument and settle it beyond any doubt! Blessings to you, Nolan |
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5 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Jesusman | 30451 | ||
Hey Nolan, To add to your point, concider that nowhere in Scripture is there a solid reference calling Angels "sons of God". In fact, Hebrews 1:5 goes against it. Hebrews 1:5 "For to which of the angels did HE ever say, 'Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten thee'? And again, 'I will be a father to him and he shall be a son to me'?" It's clear that Angels are not "Sons of God". Jesusman |
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6 | Are the "sons of God" pre-Fall children? | Gen 6:2 | Makarios | 30453 | ||
Excellent point, Jesusman! - Nolan |
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