Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70776 | ||
Steve, Requests for healing being denied would be quite significant, would they not? All sin is equal in God's eyes, so there is no logical reason for scripture to address a person's occupation with regard to their salvation. There would be a need to demonstrate the withholding of healing, however, if it was conditional upon who asked or how they asked. If the silence argument were to be valid, it would need to be in alignment with the nature of God. The fulfillment of the Old Covenant was an event that required miracles to confirm the validity of the change. Withholding those miracles would have been inconsistent with His purpose and contrary to His Word. Additionally, and back to our original discussion, the silence position does not explain why miraculous healing can not be conducted with 100 percent success today. Are sick children in our hospitals in the same basket as an "imagined Pharisee" demanding healing as a sign? Let's reason together and look at scripture logically. From that framework, continued miraculous gifts do not exist today and can only be weakly supported by adding to scripture. Their purpose was fulfilled with the arrival of the written word. P. S. I am short on time, but will put some more thought to the validity question you pose at a later date. AO |
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2 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | stjones | 70780 | ||
Hi, AO; You've provided some well-reasoned speculation with many appeals to logic but few to Scripture. But let me focus on this statement: "the silence position does not explain why miraculous healing can not be conducted with 100 percent success today". I don't know what you mean by "success". If you mean that a healing is accomplished every time a human wills it to be so, then, no, it is not 100 percent successful now nor has it ever been. If you mean a healing is accomplished every time God ordains it then, yes, the success rate is no less than 100 percent. To answer your followup question 'Are sick children in our hospitals in the same basket as an "imagined Pharisee" demanding healing as a sign?' Ultimately, yes. They like we are fallen creatures in a fallen world. They have no guarantee of health and no hope for Heaven apart from Jesus. And if God wills any of them, Pharisee or hospitalized child, to be healed, they will be healed - 100 percent of the time. Peace and grace, Steve aka Indiana Jones |
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3 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70821 | ||
Steve, For clarification,we are talking about healings ordained by God. The question is: Does the NT give any examples of these as not being successful? If it does not mention any, then why? What does a healer and a healee (forgive my terminology) need for efective healing to occur? AO |
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4 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | stjones | 71029 | ||
Hi, AO; I'm sure there is no instance of a healing ordained by God failing his intention. We might think of Jesus' healing of the blind man in Mark 8:22-26 as "failing" the first time, but I'm sure things went as Jesus intended and the man was ultimately healed. There is the instance in Matthew 17:14-20[21] of the disciples failing to cast out a demon but, again, the demon was ultimately cast out. So perhaps God's intention was briefly thwarted but it was finally achieved. Peace and grace, Steve aka Indiana Jones |
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