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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | DLD | 18947 | ||
To be saved one must believe, repent and be baptised. Jesus said, "He who has believed and has been baptised shall be saved" Mark 16:15-16, cp Matt 28:19, Luke 24:47. The apostle Peter, in Acts 2:37-38 told those who believed Jesus to be "both Lord and Christ to "repent, and let each of you be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" Following their baptism they had their sins forgiven, they were born again, and the Holy Spirit was given to them. He came to live within them as a holy guest, 1 Cor 6:19-20; Eph 1:13-14; Rom 8:9-11. There is no scriptural evidence to suggest that those who "received his (Peters) word (and) were baptised" spoke in tongues, even though the Holy Spirit now dwelt in them. They received the gift of tongues, or other gifts by an apostle laying hands on them, Acts 19:6; cp Acts 6:6,8. It was only the apostles who were baptised with the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost, Acts 2:1-4, cp Acts 1:1-5 and verse 8. Philip (not an apostle) was one of those on whom the apostles laid hands in Acts 6:5-6 and had these gifts, Acts 8:5-8. But Philip could not lay hands on the Samaritan Christians to give them these gifts, it needed the apostles to come from Jerusalem to do this, Acts 8:14-16. One disciple, Simon wanted to buy this power with money, v17. Simon said, "Give this authority to me as well, so that everyone on whom I lay my hands may receive the Holy Spirit" v18 He was told by Peter that there was no way he could have this power, vvs 20-24. That power died with the apostles, so it is not available today. Paul told us that these gifts would cease, 1 Cor 13:8-10, "when the perfect comes". James called it "the perfect law, the law of liberty" James 1:23-25. These 'signs' were to confirm the word spoken, Mark 16:17-20. Once confirmed they had accomplished their purpose and would cease. To seek such today would demonstrate our doubt of the confirmation of the message. Even when these gifts were available, not everyone possessed the gift of tongues, see 1 Cor 12:30. Let me sum up briefly. If you believe in Jesus, confess him (Acts 8:37), repent of your sins and are baptised, then you are saved. The Holy Spirit will be given to you, to live in you, to do His work in you. The evidence will be to see the fruit of the Spirit, Gal 5:22-26. I hope this helps you see what Gods word has to say about this subject. |
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2 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | Searcher56 | 19118 | ||
DLD, You are correct. Not everytime did people speak in tongues when they were saved. You said 'The apostle Peter, in Acts 2:37-38 told those who believed Jesus to be "both Lord and Christ to "repent, and let each of you be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit" Following their baptism they had their sins forgiven, they were born again, and the Holy Spirit was given to them.' Outward baptism is not required for salvation and it does not have to be by immersion. On the later, type my name Searcher56 and method baptism after clicking Search on the left side. However, the Greek tenses does not agree. Baptism was after their repentance, having their sins forgiven and receiving the Holy Spirit. You are also incorrect why Simon couldn't nave the ability to lay hands on people so they can recieve the Holy Spirit ... he wanted to BUY it. Searcher |
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3 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | DLD | 19242 | ||
The Englishman's Greek New Testament reads: "Repent, and be baptised each of you in the name of Jesus Christ, for remission of sins" The Good News for Modern Man reads: "Turn away from your sins, each of you, and be baptised in the name of Jesus Christ, so that your sins will be forgiven you" I don't know of any version or translation of the Bible that reads as you have suggested. Note that is "repent AND baptism" Acts 2:38 "believe AND be baptised" Mark 16:16 I am not sure what you mean by 'outward baptism is not required for salvation and it does not have to be immersion'. In at least two passages water is clearly mentioned, Acts 8:36-39; 10:48. In Eph 4:5 we are told there is ONE baptism. Rom 6:3-6; Col 2:12 tells us we are 'buried' in baptism, and only immersion fits that description. Acts 8:36-39 says that both Philip and ther eunuch went 'down' into the water, and came 'up' out of the water. Only immersion will fit. If the baptism you consider necessary is 'baptism of the Holy Spirit', please could you describe what it is, and how it is received. (scriptures please). There is a description given in Acts 2:1-4 that it came direct from heaven and with a "sound as of a rushing mighty wind" and "cloven tongues like as of fire" that sat upon each of the apostles. The only other time this occurred is in Acts 10:44-46, which Peter explained a little more in Acts 11:15-17 "the Holy Spirit fell on them, as on us at the beginning". In Acts 15:7-8 Peter makes another reference to this same event in Acts 10 by explaining that to the Gentiles he (God) "gave them the Holy Spirit, even as he did to us" There is no other mention of this baptism. The one baptism left is water baptism. You are quite correct that Simon wanted to buy the ability that the apostles had. However Peter said in verse 21 "Thou hast neither part nor lot in this matter". As only the apostles were given this ability, Simon could have no part as he wasn't a part of the apostleship. Neither could he obtain by 'lot' as did Matthias in replacing Judas Iscariot, Acts 1:20-26. I hope this clarifies what things for you. |
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4 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | Searcher56 | 19255 | ||
DLD, Read the Greek for Acts 2:38 and it should be clear to you by the tenses used the truth. Mark 16:16 says "he who has disbelieved shall be condemned" therefore is there a third group, those who only believe? What about those who were saved on the flights that crashed on 09/11 and the Alaska Airlnes serveral years ago? Rom 6:3-6, Col 2:12 and Eph 4:5 are the (inward) baptism of the Holy Spirit when we receive Christ. Now since you apparently did not read my post, here it is ... As we try to harmonize each and every Biblical reference to baptism, it is most important that we first discover the Biblical meaning of the word "baptism." Before we look at these Greek words, we should look at a similar Greek word, bapto. The reason we should look at this word is because many Bible students are convinced that the word "baptize" means to immerse. One of their arguments is that the root word from which "baptism" is derived is the word bapto, and it is always translated "dip" in the Bible. The fact is, when we carefully study the Bible's usage of the word "baptism," we will discover that it is never used to signify immersion. Moreover, we will find that the word "baptism," if it has any spiritual application, always has to do with the washing away of our sins. These two principles will be clearly seen as we go along in our study. On the other hand, the Greek word bapto or a similar word, embapto, is always translated "dip." But when we look at every place in the Bible where either bapto or embapto is found, we will find that they are never used as synonyms for the washing away of our sins. That is, in no way do they signify or relate to salvation. Therefore, even though in some ways they may be a cousin word to "baptism," actually, they are different words as God uses them in the Bible. To make sure this is so, let us take time to examine every place in the Bible where the words bapto and embapto are found The fact is, when we carefully study the Bible's usage of the word "baptism," we will discover that it is never used to signify immersion. It can be seen that the words bapto and embapto menos in these verses have nothing to do with washing away of sins. Whatever God is teaching in this action of dipping the sop and giving it to the betrayer Judas, it has nothing to do with the salvation of Judas (John 13:26). Nor does the dipping of the finger of Lazarus provide salvation for Lazarus or the rich man (Luke 16:24). One other Bible verse employs a derivative of the word bapto, and that is Revelation 19:13, which declares: And he was clothed with a vesture dipped [bapto] in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. Actually, the word bapto is the Greek word bebamnenon which is a neutral participle perfect middle which literally translates "having been dipped." Returning to our study of the Greek words baptizo, baptismos, and baptisma, we find that usually they are translated as "baptize" or "baptism." But in a few instances, the context does not allow that translation. We should examine each place in the Bible where these words are translated other than "baptize" or "baptism." This will help us to obtain the meaning of these Greek words. First, we will look at Mark 7:4, where we read: And when they come from the market, except they wash, they eat not. Thus, we see that Revelation 19:13, where a derivative of the word bapto is used, as well as all of the other verses where we find the words bapto or embapto, give us no clue as to the meaning of the word "baptism." The word "wash" employed here is from the root of the Greek word baptizo which ordinarily is translated as "baptize." The word "washing" is baptismos which ordinarily is translated as "baptism." ... continuing |
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