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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | dnt791s | 9746 | ||
What does it mean if you are born again(saved) and baptized and you have the Holy spirit but not the evidence of speaking in other tongues? |
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2 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | kalos | 9759 | ||
Most of my life since childhood, I have belonged to and attended a major Pentecostal local church and denomination. I am now a member of a church that is part of that denomination. At the age of 14, two years after my salvation experience, I was *filled* with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave utterance. Later in life, after years of study, I could no longer go along with my denomination's doctrine of the Baptism of the Holy Spirit, being filled with the Spirit, and speaking in tongues, which somehow got all mixed in together. Was my experience valid? Yes, it was. Did I actually receive the gift of tongues at age 14? Yes, I did. Do I believe the initial physical evidence of being baptized in OR filled with the Holy Spirit is speaking in tongues? No, I don't. A prominent Pentecostal writer (Ralph M. Riggs) himself wrote: "The BEST evidence of the fullness of the Spirit is A CHANGED LIFE (caps are mine for emphasis). " Do all speak in tongues? The implied answer in 1 Cor 13 is no, not all speak in tongues. I now understand that I was baptized into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit (1 Cor 12:13) when I first was saved, when I was born again. At the same time, I began to be indwelt by the Spirit, as are ALL believers (Rom 8:9) On the night that I spoke in tongues, what happened.? I was filled (controlled and empowered) by the Holy Spirit, received the gift of tongues, and began to speak in tongues. Was I baptized by or in the Holy Spirit that night? No, that had taken place 2 years earlier when I first trusted Christ for salvation (2 Cor 2:13). My point is that I had an experience -- a valid experience -- in which I spoke in tongues for the first time. I continue to speak in tongues, almost daily, as I have for the last 42 years. But there are no exceptions to this principle: We don't prove the Bible by experience; we prove experience by the Bible. Even though I speak in tongues, I cannot ignore the clear Biblical teachings on being baptized by the Holy Spirit, being indwelt by the Holy Spirit, being filled with the Spirit, the gift of tongues, and the proper use of the gifts, including tongues, as outlined in 1 Cor chapters 12-14. I still believe tongues to be a valid, current gift of the Spirit. I do not believe that tongues have ceased, as some do. Yet I abhor some of the Pentecostal and charismatic excesses that are contrary to Scripture, the misuse of the gifts, and just plain bad doctrine about the gift of tongues and the baptism by the Holy Spirit. |
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3 | curious about your response | Acts | userdoe220 | 9770 | ||
I consider myself part of the Pentecostal-charimatic movement and was wondering how you deal with their reasoning behind the "initial Physical evidence" belief? 1st argument: In the Book of Acts the accounts of people being "baptized (filled) in (with) the Holy Spirit" usually occur after a persons salvation. An example would be the day of Pentecost. So, the Baptism or infilling of the Holy Spirit must be a subsequent act follwing a believers Salvation. (Non-Pentecostals came up with a doctrine called the second-work of Grace after observing this pattern in the book of Acts. Salvation was the first work of Grace and Complete sanctification was the second work of Grace.) 2nd Argument: Every account recorded in the book of Acts except 2 follows with the Baptizee speaking in Tongeus. The 1st exception was the Apostle Paul who we know spoke in tongues because of his testimony in 1 Cor. and what better time to receive the gift of tongues than at his Baptism. The 2nd instance, Simon the Sorcerer saw something dramtic happen to the individuals who were baptized in the Holy Spirit and scripture records that he wanted to purchase the ability to administer the Baptism in the Holy Spirit. Something spectacular must have happened to solicit this response--I read one commentary that stated that Simon saw the "changed lifes of the believers" and wanted to have this ability. That is kind of weak in my opinion. Something more dramatic had to have happened than that to solicit that kind of response. 3rd argument: The gift of tongues covered in 1 cor. refer to a special gift used in church and is different from the tongues that accompany the Baptism in the Holy Spirit (surprisingly RC Sproul believes this as well!) I talked to my Pastor about this and he said that a person can speak in tongues one time at his baptism and never again and be considered "baptized in the Holy Spirit." I am very curios to your, or anybody else who is part of the Pentecostal-charismatic movement, response to these two arguments. I personally agree with you on this issue, but I guess 10 plus years believing a certain teaching will take time to work through. |
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4 | curious about your response | Acts | Radioman | 9883 | ||
Case closed. | ||||||