Results 1 - 8 of 8
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Moses have a second wife? | Exodus | srbaegon | 19835 | ||
I had not thought of it before, but it certainly looks Like a second wife. Zipporah was a Midianite (Gen 2) making her of a different tribe of people than the Cushite. Also, we need to be careful about Moses' marital status when this took place. Scripture does not say whether or not Zipporah was still living. My guess is that she was not. Steve |
||||||
2 | Why? | Exodus | There | 19902 | ||
Why do you guess that Zipporah was not living when Moses married the Egyptian woman? The opposite assumption could also be made since it does not say that Zipporah had died. One assumption would be as valid as the other. I'm not trying to contend with you, but only trying to gain insight. |
||||||
3 | Why? | Exodus | Norrie | 19937 | ||
That's true. He would not have been the first man to have more than one wife back then. | ||||||
4 | Does the Bible teach that it is sin? | Exodus | There | 19944 | ||
This is a subject I hadn't thought about until recently when someone brought it up to me. Since God did not condemn David or Solomon nor any other Old Testament man for having more than one wife, where did the teaching come from that a man should only have one wife? And since God didn't condemn it then, is it actually wrong? Personally I'm a bit repulsed by the idea, but that may be because I have been taught that it IS wrong. I was told that a man in a muliple marriage can easily accept the NT verses where it says: "let the husband render to his wife..." "let each man have his own wife..." "the husband is head of the wife..." and even "the two shall become one flesh..." because it is talking about the relationship between TWO people, and the husband should be that to each of his wives individually. Further comments by all would be appreciated. |
||||||
5 | Does the Bible teach that it is sin? | Exodus | srbaegon | 19960 | ||
God made His plan for marriage plain. Polygamy in Israel was the exception, not the rule. "let each man have his own wife..." That phrase alone would convince me that God's purpose was one man and one woman. However, I would add that the references concerning God's desire for marriage are in the singular. Steve |
||||||
6 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | There | 20011 | ||
I'm glad Steve that it convinces you... but it gives very little with which to impress others one way or the other. 1Corinthians 7:2 is basically saying that if you can't control yourself... get married. Both men and women. But that in itself is not teaching marriage to only one wife per say. Paul states also that it is even better to remain single if one can practice self-control. After reading your last post concerning monogamy being the "rule", and polygamy being the exception to the "rule", I did some checking in the OT and found that MANY, MANY men either had multiple wives and/or concubines. So it is very possible that polygamy was not the "exception", but rather, an option. My question still stands though. If polygamy is wrong, why didn't God condemn the practice, and/or at least speak out against it to those who practiced it? Such as Abraham, Jacob/Israel, many of his descendants including David, Solomon, etc. |
||||||
7 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | srbaegon | 20027 | ||
Response............... Well, if my answer doesn't satisfy your question, you should continue to ask it. :-) Let's narrow this to the meat of your inquiry. You gave some well-known examples of men who had multiple wives and want to know if it's wrong. And if it's wrong, why did God not condemn the practice outright? First let's look at whther or not it's correct. I'm going to use some terms I learned in hermeneutics class. 1. First mention -- This is important in establishing the proper purpose or intent of a matter. In this case the very first union was one man and one woman (Gen 2:21-25). 2. Pattern -- Look at the genealogies. Polygamy is not mentioned from Seth to Abraham/Jacob. Yet in Cain's line the sinful deterioration happens so quickly that it's only five generations (Gen 4:19). The godly line maintained the God's purpose. My conclusion is that polygamy is not God's desire. Second. Why didn't God condemn it? 1. The language of the Mosaic law assumes one man joined to one woman. The grammar is always singular. 2. God explicitly told the Israelites that if they chose a king to reign over them the king was forbidden from multiplying wives. (Deut 17:17). God doesn't need to repeat Himself, though He will. My conclusion: God did condemn it. People just would not listen. Steve |
||||||
8 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | There | 20034 | ||
Thanks Steve. You gave me something more to dig into. |
||||||