Results 101 - 120 of 130
|Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes
Author: lightedsteps Ordered by Verse
|101||can we loose spiritual gifts?||1 Cor 12:11||lightedsteps||220323|
This should answer your question.
For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.
As you can see, there are no stipulations, or requirements as far as use are concerned.
Sounds like once given, never revoked.:-D
|102||What Kind of Unity?||2 Cor 2:16||lightedsteps||220535|
If I may, what prompted your posting of "What Kind of Unity" by Mr. Whitcomb?
Grace be unto you
|103||chould a preacher question peoples chris||2 Cor 13:5||lightedsteps||222836|
Does your church have an alter call for salvation each Sunday?
Then there must be people attending the services who are not saved.
A few scriptures you should read, then ask is it the position of a pastor to confront ones salvation?
Mat 13:24-30 - Rom 14:4 - Joh 7:24
Grace be unto you
|104||chould a preacher question peoples chris||2 Cor 13:5||lightedsteps||222854|
From the sound of your post, you do not agree with, or see the need for the practice of churches having alter calls.
But be that as it may, when it comes to the over all point of your question, I am at a loss, what is the relation of your question and my post? I made no definitive statement pro, or con regarding this well worn tradition.
Therefore I am at a loss, as to why you would ask my opinion on the matter?
Grace be unto you
|105||Heaven or hell predetermined?||Eph 1:11||lightedsteps||223109|
You are putting forward a belief, that the passage you use, does not speak to.
Isaiah 40:12-14 only addresses the sovereignty of God, which is not in question.
In your saying:
"God always has a remnant: persons that He specifically has chosen by His own counsel Isaiah 40:12-14), before creation, for salvation"
I fully understand that the use of these verses, are to give credence, or a validity for your overall statement, which infers a predestination of salvation.
However even the Ephesians verses, do not speak of a remnant chosen by His own counsel, before creation, for salvation. As a matter of fact, I can't find anywhere in scripture where it does say what you have just espoused. Although Ephesians 2:8 does say we are saved by grace, it does not go so far as to say, we are chosen by His own counsel, before creation, therefore I see the use of your two quotes, and your placing of them in conjunction with one another, only as one possible interpretation of the scriptures as you have used, and understand them to be. I therefore would like to place into the record of this thread, for future readers of this thread another allegory, which gives another possible interpretation.
Using (Ephesians 1:4-6)
Here is another analogy:
Imagine a woman going to an open air market to get some apples. Finding them, she tells the grocer, I want 5 lbs. he chooses at random, enough apples to fill the order, all of the same quality, all of which have blemishes. To the woman, it is irrelevant which of the apples are chosen to be put into the bag, because she had predetermined before leaving the house, that the apples she was going to buy, only had to fill one criteria, and that criteria being, they were apples, because she was going to transform these apples, making them all into something special, so then, through this transformation process, she took away every blemish, no matter how bad the blemish might be, all of the apples were going to be conformed into a pie.
Thereby they would not resemble their former estate.
Take note that the woman did not predetermine each of the apples she wanted to buy before going to the market, but she did predetermine, that after paying the required price for them, each and every apple that she would buy, would go through a transformation, regardless of how bad a blemish it might have, that through her love, they would all become acceptable in the pie.
Grace be unto you
|106||Heaven or hell predetermined?||Eph 1:11||lightedsteps||223122|
According to the verses you have used, there is a remnant, (Rom.11:1-6). You are right again when you say God chose them by his grace.
You are correct, God is sovereign, and the election is purely by grace. No argument from me:-)
What you have just posted Rom.11:1-6 which is talking about the Jews of that time, the remnant which is being spoken of are clearly the Jewish believers, which are identified in Rom.11:5,7, therefore this passage of scripture doesn't then apply to us of today, in other words "WE" are not the remnant spoken of in these passages, they were. There was a specific point being made by Paul about the Jews in this chapter wasn't there? There are only two verses in the New Test. speaking of a remnant, both are speaking of the Jewish believers Rom.9:27, and Rom.11:5.
You are right once more, nowhere does Paul say, STOP, WAIT HOLD IT you are misunderstanding me ! !
So I will, stop, wait, hold it, you are misunderstanding me.
Here again is my original statement.
"However even Ephesians 1:4-6 does not speak of a remnant, chosen by His own counsel, before creation, for salvation. As a matter of fact, I can't find anywhere in scripture where it does say what you have just espoused."
Please correct me if I am wrong, in grammar, the use of the word (remnant), denotes that there was originally a whole, therefore a remnant would then constitute only a small part of that whole, would it not?
At this point I have to say, if the statement which was made, was made with the broadest possible
understanding ie, that all Christians for the last two thousand years, constitute only a remnant of all of the people ever created, then I would have to concur with this belief also.
Grace be unto you
|107||Heaven or hell predetermined?||Eph 1:11||lightedsteps||223154|
Please forgive the delay in responding to your post.
I would ask, what in your opinion would be the correct "Interpretation" of these two verses?
What should I be seeing, that you so readily see, and understand?
I believe we may have differing views on these verses.
Grace be unto you
|108||Heaven or hell predetermined?||Eph 1:11||lightedsteps||223157|
|Hi again Brad
In your first post ( 223112 ) you made a statement.
"Ephesians does speak of us (believers) being chosen"
You made this statement as a point of fact, or absolute truth, without any room for any possible error, and that anybody reading them would automatically come to the same conclusion as you have, then using Eph.1:4,5 as your proof.
I am asking for nothing more than what your understanding of these verses are, and why you believe the posting of them would speak so profoundly, that they would give me a full understanding of how you have come to the conclusion you have, causing you, to make your statement as you did.
In order for any meaningful discussion to take place, I needed to know where you were coming from, therefore I asked what I thought to be a reasonable question, your interpretation of these verses, so I could fully understand your thoughts.
The short time I have been part of this forum, I have come to the conclusion, it is upon the person making statements, to fully expound on them, by stating their beliefs, and why, using scripture in support of said beliefs, not just by making a statement, and posting scripture without any explanation. If these two scriptures you posted, were so straightforward in meaning, being self explanatory, I would not have had no need to ask for your interpretation of them.
You have come to a conclusion about them, and I am curious as to what your thoughts on them are.
I could not possibly come to your point of view, unless I know in advance, just what that point of view is can I?
Grace be unto you
|109||Heaven or hell predetermined?||Eph 1:11||lightedsteps||223173|
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved. (Ephesians 1:3-6 NASB)
Having many years ago completed a very careful, and concise exegesis of these very same verses, I clearly found, and have believed the same ever since that time.
Is speaking only about Christians, and their having been chosen by God, according to the good pleasure of His will.
Grace be unto you
|110||False Humility||1 Thess 5:22||lightedsteps||220036|
Is a false humility wrong for a professed Christian?
Someone that tries to give an impression to another Christian as though they are less than they actually are.
Like attempting to appear to another Christian like they aren't as smart as others in things of the bible.
Isn't doing this deceptive and manipulative for a Christian to practice?
Wouldn't it be considered lying?
|111||do u tithe on unemployment checks||1 Tim 1:8||lightedsteps||220615|
|To all of our tithing viewers.
If you have decided to tithe, you tithe 10 percent of your increase.
This 10 percent is based upon your gross increase not your net, in other words "every" cent you acquire.
As far as tithing on Unemployment check where is your faith?
Is it fair that the Gov. take out it's tax, then Social Security takes out for you, then you tithe on what is left? God is the one that gave all of it to you in the first place.
Then at the end of the year don't take it off on your taxes, that would be the same as not tithing at all.
This whole tithing experience is meant to be a faith walk, if you are continually trying to decide whether you should tithe this or that, then stop tithing, because your motive is wrong. You are either tithing out of obligation according to law, or it is for the gain that is promised. Whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
A very simple way to look at tithing is, we all spend money on a lot of things we can't even account for at the end of the month, that is not good stewardship. But in your tithing, you should forget about it, not expecting reward for your faithfulness, or worrying whether or not you will have enough money for the rest of the month.
Whenever the decision has been made to tithe, from that point on the actual workings of it should not be questioned, let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.
Like I said tithing is a faith walk, those that will trust God in their belief will be able to tithe, those that believe it is not for today, or feel tithing is legalistic won't.
Grace be unto you
|112||do u tithe on unemployment checks||1 Tim 1:8||lightedsteps||220662|
Excuse me but scripture says the complete opposite from what you have said.
Do not think that I came to "ABOLISH" the Law or the Prophets;
I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
Grace be unto you
|113||What is interpretation of Hebrews 6:4-6||Heb 6:9||lightedsteps||220819|
I recently made a rather lengthy post to this exact question.
Go to the upper right hand corner of this page, and enter the number 219874 in the search box.
My personal view on these verses are that we as believers cannot renounce Christ. On the ground these verses say, (first) "it is impossible", for that eventuality to take place, and (second) there is the "IF" which does not mean "When", but that if it were possible for them to fall away.
The "IF" mentioned, goes with the "It is impossible", not apart from it.
Hoping this has the answers you are seeking.
Grace be unto you
|114||What is interpretation of Hebrews 6:4-6||Heb 6:9||lightedsteps||220828|
Going to my Greek Interlinear Bible I find it says.
4.) For (it is) impossible. (For) impossible the (ones) once being enlightened and tasting of the (2)gift -
(1)heavenly and sharers becoming Spirit of (the) Holy
5.) and (2)(the) good (1)tasting (4)of God (3)word and the powerful deeds of a coming age,
6.) and falling away, again to renew to repentance, crucifying again for themselves the Son - of God and putting (him) to open shame.
The "IF" in all actuality was more than likely added, because in the translation from Greek into English, there needed to be a connector in order for the English to sound correct to the reader.
Even with the "IF" removed, I come to the same conclusion, based on what was written in the 4th. verse.
"For (it is) impossible. (For) impossible"
Therefore the "IF" isn't needed to understand what Paul was writing, he makes the point in the 4th. verse.
He is making a declaration, it does not need to be qualified.
He is in essence saying, anyone having accepted this Grace (gift) of God, and everything it entails, cannot detract from, or in any way nullify the sacrificial work of Jesus.
Once becoming a child of God, He never disinherits anyone. Because of the shame it would bring upon His name to/in the world. We also should have our confidence in God.
Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed.
If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable.
Grace be unto you
|115||What is interpretation of Hebrews 6:4-6||Heb 6:9||lightedsteps||220836|
|Dear brother Beja
I do not mean to belabor the question, seeing that greater minds than mine have grappled over this issue for centuries.
Seeing we are of the same mind, as far as our understanding of the irrevocable nature of our Salvation.
Let me if I may, ask one question, in the light of 2 other verses of scripture, that I base my understanding of the Heb. verses in question on.
1.) What was it that separated Adam from God, what has it been since Adam, that has separated mankind from God?
When reading the following verses, keep in mind, "It is impossible", for us to fall away, as assuredly as
"It would be impossible" for us to be renewed, if we could fall away.
My true understanding of the Heb. verses are that both statements are categorically impossible, while true.
No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him.
No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Grace be unto you
|116||Is Salvation lump sum?||Heb 7:25||lightedsteps||220009|
God truly is the savior of all men every where for all time through the precious blood of Jesus Christ our lord.
For this very passage states this truth plainly blatantly. Knowing full well as it says in Heb. 6:18 it is impossible for God to lie we must then have the full understanding that these passages are therefore true.
Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
If we allow other scripture (I will use but two) to shed their light upon these scriptures and by so doing illuminate the truth to be found within.
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
When we lay them alongside 1 Tim.2:4 and 1 Tim.4:10 they are all in certain points agreeing with each other. Each of which in there own way say "ALL"
1) all men to be saved 2) Saviour of all men 3) the whole world 4) once for all
We can then say without a shadow of a doubt they do and are saying all men everywhere for all time as I have said before. This fact cannot be disputed for it does clearly say that.
It appears as though all of the energy for an understanding of these scriptures has gone into the meaning of the words than the reality of what was accomplished for mankind. There is the key "MANKIND" for understanding. There is not a Christian alive that would deny Christ died for the sins of mankind.
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
We find then in these two verses God has provided the gift of everlasting life for the world. But at the same time we also see there is a stipulation for the effective appropriation of that gift "FAITH"
The point of my whole recitation is this
1) It is Gods desire for all to come to the knowledge of the truth and the salvation He has provided.
2) The Gift of salvation has been provided for all of mankind.
3) All of mankind will not avail themselves of this salvation.
It isn't a matter of ALL men WILL be saved.
But that it has been provided for ALL men to become saved.
But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
These last verses sum it up.
We must have faith
We must believe God is
God will reward us when we seek Him
We do not become His children until we accept Him as our Father
Why would God grant the same salvation to those that have lived their lives without wanting Him as those that have sought Him?
|117||Is Salvation lump sum?||Heb 7:25||lightedsteps||220058|
In my attempt to better understand your teaching posted to dodoy I have gone back to your post 220028
Whereby I am finding it hard to nail down any definitions for a word and a term which you have used.
Heterodoxical or heretical groups, the Middle Ages involved constant attempts to renegotiate and redefine relationships among people. .....Technorati
This is all I am able to find for your use of this term.
I am sure this cannot be what you are saying. Where could I find the definition as you are using it.
The Orthodox Christian belongs to the Body of Christ, the Church of Christ. This Eastern Orthodox Church is organically the same congregation (or ecclesia) which was born at the outpouring of the Holy Spirit in Jerusalem on Pentecost, a direct continuation from the Apostles by laying on of hands from each generation of priests to the next. The Orthodox Christian recognizes the rich Christian heritage and proclaims that he belongs to this Church, which corresponds to the Church of the Apostles as does a grown-up person correspond to a picture taken of him as a child.
The Orthodox Christian has been baptized in the name of the Holy Trinity and follows the ideals and beliefs of both the Scriptures and Sacred Tradition. He believes in a living and loving God, Whose Grace protects and guides him in the path of redemption. He believes that God has revealed Himself in the Bible through the Prophets and especially in the Person of Jesus Christ, His only-begotten Son who is man's Savior. He especially believes in the Incarnation of Christ as God-Man, in His Crucifixion and Resurrection, in His Gospel and Commandments, and in the world to come. ......Orthodox Christian Page
Thank you for your indulgence
|118||Is Salvation lump sum?||Heb 7:25||lightedsteps||220062|
A little deeper clarification if you don't mind.
you said in regard to Christian ( orthodoxy )
"In theology, when we use the word, we mean the essential doctrines of the Christian faith.
1) Does this refer to the most basic doctrines that all denominations can agree on or are they the doctrines of only certain denominations?
What I am seeking for is the understanding of who is being specifically spoken of.
2) When you say ( orthodoxy ) would this be the same as I would say Christendom meaning all Christians regardless of denomination? Where I would be speaking about or on behalf of the Christian Faith in the general sense.
3) In your using the word ( orthodoxy ) does it encompass the Pentecostals and Catholics within this term because of the differences found in their doctrinal beliefs?
you say ( heterodoxy )
"We use the word to mean those teachings that are contrary to orthodoxy."
4) Is it as simple as a different or other opinion or thinking?
Or does it lean more in the direction of heresy idolatrous schismatic unorthodox something more on the order of contrary to and opposite in nature or character to the held theology?
The reason I ask is that neither the term ( Christian orthodoxy ) nor the word ( heterodoxy ) have a very benign sound to them.
Forgive me for saying it this way but they convey the feeling of being very staid and absolutely without any room for question.
|119||Is Salvation lump sum?||Heb 7:25||lightedsteps||220076|
The cloak of mockery is not a becoming garment for a brother it covers the very robes of righteousness.
Pro 10:19 In the multitude of words there wanteth not sin: but he that refraineth his lips is wise.
Jas 1:26 If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion is vain.
God is Love
|120||Is Salvation lump sum?||Heb 7:25||lightedsteps||220114|
Thank you for the time you have invested on my questions. They have been most enlightening.
Does not orthodoxy along with it's doctrines compel the believer toward an exclusive understanding of the Holy Scripture which would conform to those doctrines?
Would not then any exegesis of the Holy Scriptures conducted be biased by the very nature of the understanding acquired which would coincide with the dictated doctrines found in orthodoxy?
My point being there are many denominations to be found within the term Christian orthodoxy.
There are also many divisions found within those several denominations.
Thus my use of the term Christendom.
While these differing factions within a denomination may agree on the most basic of doctrines thereby keeping them all within the bounds of orthodoxy they hold other doctrines that are not mutual in fact may be exclusive only to themselves.
Are they not then incapable of retrieving from scripture a like understanding?
Except where orthodoxy itself is concerned.
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