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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | Nevvvvine | 210672 | ||
Hi gruvEdude:: To paraphrase Matthew 18:16 In the mouth of two or three, let every (HUH) be established. Just what is your point? If OLD words offend or confuse you, the simplest solution is to not use them. Then find a Bible that doesn't use them either. Not wanting to be offensive in,my quoting, of an Old Quote, I will therefore update it for your benefit and subsequent approval. I believe that you are only "Splitting Atoms". God speaking to Man in any country will use the language of said country, and Age in which he speaks, therefore we have a Bible, the (KJV) where we have the use of archaic words, because the (KJV) was published in 1611. To make a short statement even longer, I believe Adam could have been multilingual, let me explain, when Adam was in the Garden he spoke ("GOD") after the fall he spoke a human language, given to him by God. You might be able to call that language the "Adamite language" which would have been the language of Noah, and his sons. Then when God confounded the language of man, everyone that spoke a different language left the area, leaving the people that spoke what we now call the Chaldiean language, although in that area today, we would call it Iraqi. So what I am saying is, the Iraqui language of today could be a Dialect of what I termed as the Adamite language. When God spoke to Moses, he spoke Hebrew, although Moses and the people also spoke Egyptian, having been in Egypt for 410 yrs. GOD speaks his own language, do you think you would understand him, if he talked to you in his language? All languages are his creation, many variations on a central theme, like Birds, Dogs, Cats I guess the whole point of this is to let you know, it doesn't matter what language God speaks in to us. Don't try to box him according to our limitations. Be Blessed in Christ Nevvvvine |
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2 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | azurelaw | 210673 | ||
Dear Newwine, No speculation, please. Thanks and Shalom Azure |
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3 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | Nevvvvine | 210705 | ||
Hi Azure:: Just for clarification, would this following statement fall into the catigory of speculation, when there isn't any difinative proof one way, or the other? Note the beginning of the statement (some think). Some think the music the prophet called for is that sort the Greeks call "harmony," which is the gravest and saddest, and settles the affections: In Peace Nevvvvine |
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4 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | stjohn | 210712 | ||
Newwine, I'm sure Azure will get back to you if she wishes, but if I may say, there is nothing inherently wrong with speculation as long as it follows a biblically based foundation, and is given as such e.g. your example would probably be alright. And of course as long as there is nothing objectionable or that goes against the Terms of Use as set forth by our gracious host, The Lockman Foundation. Of course we need to be as objectively biblical as we can to ensure we don't stray from sound orthodoxy. Just remember this is a Bible study not a opinion/speculation study, nor a chat-room. I hope this helps. :-) Shalom John |
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