Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | parpar | 201079 | ||
Dear WOS. Thank you for your post in which you say, "I don’t think God justifies because we have done the right thing in accepting his offer of salvation, but rather by imputing the obedience and satisfaction of Jesus Christ unto us. And this not by anything we do, because it requires faith which is a gift from God to begin with." I am having difficulty in understanding just what it is you are trying to say, as it is impossible to, "accept His offer of salvation", without exercising God's gift of faith.. Which fact I would have thought was obvious, and is the reason why I made no reference to it. Now regarding my understanding of, "Justification", might I with respect refer you to web site, http://satisfiedingod.blogspot.com/2006/06/meaning-of-justified-in-james-221-24_18.html From which is given below a short extract. Introduction Justification before God is no trivial matter; heaven and hell are at stake. The foundation of Christianity has always rested on the biblical truth that “a man is justified by faith apart from works of Law” (Rom. 2:28). The apostle Paul vehemently preached against the notion that anyone could be justified outside faith in Jesus Christ (Rom. 1:18-3:20, 3:28, Gal. 2:21, 3:11). If Paul proclaimed that a person was declared righteous upon their confession of Jesus Christ, how then are we to interpret James’ pericope which seems to blatantly contradict the very statement that Christianity proclaims? The Problem with the Word “Justified” James states, “Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son on the alter? You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (James 2:21, 24). On the surface, Paul in Romans 3:28 and James in 2:21, 24 seem to create a deep contradiction in their content. However, through research and meditation one can discover that there is reconciliation and harmony between these two passages. First, we need to consider the use of the Greek word “dikaiow.” This word means “to make or declare pure/free/righteous” concerning the moral state of an individual. However, this word can also mean “to vindicate” or to demonstrate the righteous state of an individual.[1] Although the latter is the more prominent usage (especially amongst Pauline writings), the former is also used on a variety of occasions (i.e. Rom. 2:13, Jas. 2: 21, 24).[2] Every blessing. parpar. |
||||||
2 | Reconciling Scripture verses. | OT general | srbaegon | 201103 | ||
Hello parpar, I believe that I missed the point of your post. How does the blog entry respond to WOS and the issue of justification in this thread? Steve |
||||||