Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | John Reformed | 85758 | ||
Dear NC, 2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness, but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance. Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased. John 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world But what is the universal response to the True Light? John 3:20 "For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. Who among the sons and daughters of Adam does not do evil? If I were to follow your logic, I would have to believe that God merely makes salvation a possibility. But it is up to man to make it happen. Which means only those who have a spark of "good" in them will repent. Meanwhile God stands by helpless in the face of man's stubborn rebellion. I just don't see it that way! God is almighty and soverign. He does as He pleases among the inhabitants of the earth. At the same time, man is responsible for his own actions. How these two facts can exist at the same time God has not told us. Nevertheless it is so. John |
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2 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | New Creature | 85825 | ||
John I find Scriptural support for my statement - "not willing for any to perish" 2 Pet. 3:9 You failed to support the following statement you made with Scripture - "Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased." All the other statements I made in my previous reply were supported with Scripture. You also appeared to disagree with such Scriptural statements that Jesus draws all men to Himself. Unless you alter that statement to say Jesus draws some men to Himself, your interpretation appears faulty to me. If all men do not receive the light, then John 1:9 needs to be removed from the Bible also. So how do you work around such verses without modifying the plain meaning? New Creature |
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3 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | John Reformed | 85840 | ||
Dear New Creature, In response to your citation of 2 Peter 3:9, I said "Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased." I'm a bit puzzled. Are you asking me for scriptural support for the damnation of unbelievers? Matt 10:28 "Do not fear those who kill the body but are unable to kill the soul; but rather fear Him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell. Matt 25:41 "Then He will also say to those on His left, 'Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels; "You also appeared to disagree with such Scriptural statements that Jesus draws all men to Himself. Unless you alter that statement to say Jesus draws some men to Himself, your interpretation appears faulty to me." Firstly, let me get one thing straight, I do not disagree with a single word of Scripture. When my thinking is at odds with the Word of God it is my thinking that requires correction. What I may disagree with is someone else's interpretation, as they are free to disagree with mine. In context: John 12:20 "Now there were some Greeks among those who were going up to worship at the feast; these then came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida of Galilee, and began to ask him, saying, "Sir, we wish to see Jesus." Philip came and told Andrew; Andrew and Philip came and told Jesus. And Jesus answered them, saying, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified." It is plain that "all" in vs 32 means "jews and gentiles alike". "I will draw all men to myself. The word all, which he employs, must be understood to refer to the children of God, who belong to his flock. Yet I agree with Chrysostom, who says that Christ used the universal term, all, because the Church was to be gathered equally from among Gentiles and Jews, according to that saying, There shall be one shepherd, and one sheepfold, (John 10:16.)" (Calvin's Commentarys). We know that since our Lord Jesus spoke these words: "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.", He was lifted up. If, as some claim, that He meant "all" in a univesal sense, it would mean that the gospel would have had to be preached to every man, woman and child that have existed since then. We know that that has not happened. We also know that the Bible is infallible but human interperters are not; that they often read their own traditions into that which is written. I will try to address your mistaken inpression of what I said about "the Light" later, God willing. John |
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4 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | New Creature | 85872 | ||
John I thank you for being willing to reply to my questions. We may not agree with particular meaning of Scripture. Nevertheless, I hope you find this question and answering as a spiritual exercise in properly dividing the word of truth. I will wait for your response concerning John 1:9 New Creature |
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