Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | John Reformed | 85749 | ||
Dear Hank, "The call spoken of here is sometimes referred to as the "general call" of the Gospel, the great "whosoever will" of Revelation 22:17. The call extends to all who hear the Gospel." Question: What of those who never recieve even the general call of the gospel? Of what use is free will if one is not offered the choice? " Many hear it; few respond (See Matthew 7:13,14). In this parable (beginning at verse 1 of Matthew 22) Jesus was emphasizing to the Jewish audience, who considered themselves to be God's chosen people, that the outward call of God was not sufficient for salvation apart from the efficacious call of grace." Efficatious means possessing the quality of being effective; productive of, or powerful to produce, the effect intended; as, an efficacious law. "Here then we see the proper balance between human responsibility and divine sovereignty: the "called" who reject the invitation do so willingly, thus there is no injustice in their exclusion from the kingdom. The "chosen" accept the invitation extended solely by the grace of God and not by virtue of their own merit. --Hank" Question: Is it true that Scripture teaches that all men are born condemned already? Is'nt it also true that God would have been justified even if He had chosen to have mercy on none? Your thoughts? |
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2 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | New Creature | 85755 | ||
John You asked - "What of those who never recieve even the general call of the gospel?" While mulling over that question, the following verses came to mind. 2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness, but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance. Concerning the above verse, which I believe speaks directly about God's will, which says that it is not God's will for any to perish, then I would tend to conclude, that God calls, or draws everyone to be saved. , but because God gave man the freedom to either respond and receive the free universal offer of salvation, then man is held accountable for rejecting the offer or free gift of life. John 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world From the above verse we learn that the light comes to every man which comes into the world. I don't see any indication's of exclusion in that verse. John 12:32 Jesus said "And if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto Myself According to the above verse, I am told that Jesus will draw all men unto Himself Finally in the verse below I learn that the one who willfully rejects the light Jesus provides, and the words which are able to save the individaual, will be judged for that willful rejection However, all men receive light - all men are drawn. God gave man a will to receive or reject the universal offer which is able to save each and every soul. If men are damned, man, not God is at fault. John 12:48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: I don't see where Scripture anywhere says God will judge for the individual's inability to respond to the universal offer of salvation, which I believe all receive. I don't personally believe that God's grace is limited to only a few, but rather extends to all His created beings Our God is more loving and more merciful than any of us can imagine or think. New Creature |
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3 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | John Reformed | 85758 | ||
Dear NC, 2 Peter 3:9 "The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some men count slackness, but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance. Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased. John 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world But what is the universal response to the True Light? John 3:20 "For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. Who among the sons and daughters of Adam does not do evil? If I were to follow your logic, I would have to believe that God merely makes salvation a possibility. But it is up to man to make it happen. Which means only those who have a spark of "good" in them will repent. Meanwhile God stands by helpless in the face of man's stubborn rebellion. I just don't see it that way! God is almighty and soverign. He does as He pleases among the inhabitants of the earth. At the same time, man is responsible for his own actions. How these two facts can exist at the same time God has not told us. Nevertheless it is so. John |
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4 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | New Creature | 85825 | ||
John I find Scriptural support for my statement - "not willing for any to perish" 2 Pet. 3:9 You failed to support the following statement you made with Scripture - "Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased." All the other statements I made in my previous reply were supported with Scripture. You also appeared to disagree with such Scriptural statements that Jesus draws all men to Himself. Unless you alter that statement to say Jesus draws some men to Himself, your interpretation appears faulty to me. If all men do not receive the light, then John 1:9 needs to be removed from the Bible also. So how do you work around such verses without modifying the plain meaning? New Creature |
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5 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | John Reformed | 85840 | ||
Dear New Creature, In response to your citation of 2 Peter 3:9, I said "Even if "any" refers to any in a universal sense and not to "any" in the sense of the elect, God must be willing in another sense FOR people to perish because it happens. Therefore, it may not please Him that they perish but He does not prevent it, which He could if He pleased." I'm a bit puzzled. Are you asking me for scriptural support for the damnation of unbelievers? Matt 10:28 "Do not fear those who kill the body but are unable to kill the soul; but rather fear Him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell. Matt 25:41 "Then He will also say to those on His left, 'Depart from Me, accursed ones, into the eternal fire which has been prepared for the devil and his angels; "You also appeared to disagree with such Scriptural statements that Jesus draws all men to Himself. Unless you alter that statement to say Jesus draws some men to Himself, your interpretation appears faulty to me." Firstly, let me get one thing straight, I do not disagree with a single word of Scripture. When my thinking is at odds with the Word of God it is my thinking that requires correction. What I may disagree with is someone else's interpretation, as they are free to disagree with mine. In context: John 12:20 "Now there were some Greeks among those who were going up to worship at the feast; these then came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida of Galilee, and began to ask him, saying, "Sir, we wish to see Jesus." Philip came and told Andrew; Andrew and Philip came and told Jesus. And Jesus answered them, saying, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified." It is plain that "all" in vs 32 means "jews and gentiles alike". "I will draw all men to myself. The word all, which he employs, must be understood to refer to the children of God, who belong to his flock. Yet I agree with Chrysostom, who says that Christ used the universal term, all, because the Church was to be gathered equally from among Gentiles and Jews, according to that saying, There shall be one shepherd, and one sheepfold, (John 10:16.)" (Calvin's Commentarys). We know that since our Lord Jesus spoke these words: "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.", He was lifted up. If, as some claim, that He meant "all" in a univesal sense, it would mean that the gospel would have had to be preached to every man, woman and child that have existed since then. We know that that has not happened. We also know that the Bible is infallible but human interperters are not; that they often read their own traditions into that which is written. I will try to address your mistaken inpression of what I said about "the Light" later, God willing. John |
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6 | Is God Lord over all except human will | Matt 22:14 | New Creature | 85872 | ||
John I thank you for being willing to reply to my questions. We may not agree with particular meaning of Scripture. Nevertheless, I hope you find this question and answering as a spiritual exercise in properly dividing the word of truth. I will wait for your response concerning John 1:9 New Creature |
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