Results 1 - 6 of 6
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 69579 | ||
What did he say that was Nestorian? It seemed quite in conformity with Chalcedon: "Therefore, following the holy fathers, we all with one accord teach men to acknowledge one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, at once complete in Godhead and complete in manhood, truly God and truly man, consisting also of a reasonable soul and body; of one substance with the Father as regards his Godhead, and at the same time of one substance with us as regards his manhood; like us in all respects, apart from sin; as regards his Godhead, begotten of the Father before the ages, but yet as regards his manhood begotten, for us men and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin, the God-bearer; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten, recognized in two natures, without confusion, without change, without division, without separation; the distinction of natures being in no way annulled by the union, but rather the characteristics of each nature being preserved and coming together to form one person and subsistence, not as parted or separated into two persons, but one and the same Son and Only-begotten God the Word, Lord Jesus Christ; even as the prophets from earliest times spoke of him, and our Lord Jesus Christ himself taught us, and the creed of the fathers has handed down to us." The "separation" he was talking about wasn't a physical one, but rather the same distinction Chalcedon makes between the two natures ("...but yet as regards his manhood begotten, for us men and for our salvation, of Mary the Virgin, the God-bearer"). --Joe! |
||||||
2 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Emmaus | 69581 | ||
Joe, Sounded to me like he was denying the hypostatic union. Did not the Council of Ephesus declare the title Theotokos for Mary which is translated in the East as God Bearer and int the West as mother of God? Of course I could have been hasty. It seems to me that in the past you have in confromity with the Councils and Calvin affirmed that Mary is the mother of God. Emmaus |
||||||
3 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 69687 | ||
"God-bearer" is not a problem at all for me, and is very Chalcedonian. I guess the problem that most Protestants have with the term "mother of God" is the possible connotation that Jesus' divine nature in some respect had his divine origin with her. In this respect, I think that many Catholics (not necessarily you) come to the opposite but equally bad heresy of the Monophysites, who declared that Jeses has only one nature, a blending of the two rather than a union of the two in one person. As an aside, one of the reasons I reject transubstantiation (and the consubstantiation of Lutheranism) is that it seems to make the important distinction between the finite human nature of Christ and His infinite divine nature. --Joe! |
||||||
4 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Emmaus | 69708 | ||
Joe, I am not so sure about you fears of Cathlics erring in the way you described. The whole One Person, two natures concept was hammered home pretty hard in the grade school catechism classes of my generation. Others I can't speak for, but I do know what the Church teaches. What her children learn in every case I could not say. As for Christ's finite human nature, don't you think it was transformed and elevated by the Resurrection? Wasn't Christ death and Resurrection meant to transform and elevate our very natures? Something to meditate on. These are just my own personal immediate thoughts in response to you comment, not any theological or doctrinal response. Emmaus |
||||||
5 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Reformer Joe | 69709 | ||
I live in a part of the country populated pretty heavily by Hispanics, and knowing the history of the Virgin of Guadalupe, I would like to know another Catholic's take on a situation like this: The other day I saw a window decal on a truck with the Virgin, and around it, written in Spanish, were the words "My life is in your hands." To me, statements like this seem to cross the line from "veneration" to "worship." As a member of the RCC, would you stand behind a statement like the one I saw or not, and please let me know why or why not. You wrote: "As for Christ's finite human nature, don't you think it was transformed and elevated by the Resurrection?" Transformed, yes. I am not sure what you mean by the word "elevate." I do not think that Christ's human nature took on the divine characteristic of being infinite (in order that people all over the world could be feasting on His body and blood in a physical sense at this very moment and at all times throughout the day somehwere on the planet since Pentecost), and I think St. John's vision in Revelation 1 would lend some support to that position. Also, I believe that the Bible teaches that one day all of God's people will one day be everything Christ is in His human nature. Passages like 1 Corinthians 15 and the end of Philippians 3 seem to support this? Do you agree, and do you think this means we will be infinite as well? Thanks! --Joe! |
||||||
6 | Why do catholic call Mary mother of God. | Amos 1:1 | Ray | 69728 | ||
Joe, See Heb 13:8 question, 12-13-02?...Ray | ||||||