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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | srbaegon | 20027 | ||
Response............... Well, if my answer doesn't satisfy your question, you should continue to ask it. :-) Let's narrow this to the meat of your inquiry. You gave some well-known examples of men who had multiple wives and want to know if it's wrong. And if it's wrong, why did God not condemn the practice outright? First let's look at whther or not it's correct. I'm going to use some terms I learned in hermeneutics class. 1. First mention -- This is important in establishing the proper purpose or intent of a matter. In this case the very first union was one man and one woman (Gen 2:21-25). 2. Pattern -- Look at the genealogies. Polygamy is not mentioned from Seth to Abraham/Jacob. Yet in Cain's line the sinful deterioration happens so quickly that it's only five generations (Gen 4:19). The godly line maintained the God's purpose. My conclusion is that polygamy is not God's desire. Second. Why didn't God condemn it? 1. The language of the Mosaic law assumes one man joined to one woman. The grammar is always singular. 2. God explicitly told the Israelites that if they chose a king to reign over them the king was forbidden from multiplying wives. (Deut 17:17). God doesn't need to repeat Himself, though He will. My conclusion: God did condemn it. People just would not listen. Steve |
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2 | Sorry to keep asking the same question. | Exodus | There | 20034 | ||
Thanks Steve. You gave me something more to dig into. |
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