Subject: does this mean a person is unforgiven |
Bible Note: My Dearly Beloved Doc, I still maintain that these decrees are based on man's interpretation of the Word of God. They may be old and are a commonly held by the Church, but still they were derived by man from the Bible based on man's understanding of the Scripture. When I first read your response (at a glance that is), I almost chose to let this issue to just “die”. I thought we weren't going anywhere with this discussion. I also thought I needed to seek for more revelation and direction on how best to express myself on the subject, but on second thought, I think it is not a question of my expressing myself. I think this is just a wonderful discussion worth exploring further. Also, your current response does not show anything to make me think you misunderstood me. If I may say it myself, I must be doing fairly well expressing myself. Back to the subject, it is however good that the law was written, according to Romans 15:4 (KJV) "For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope." Reading another book in alongside what Paul just said to the Romans, "But certain individuals have missed the mark on this very matter [and] have wandered away into vain arguments and discussions and purposeless talk. They are ambitious to be doctors of the Law (teachers of the Mosaic ritual), but they have no understanding either of the words and terms they use or of the subjects about which they make [such] dogmatic assertions. Now we recognize and know that the Law is good if anyone uses it lawfully [for the purpose for which it was designed], Knowing and understanding this: that the Law is not enacted for the righteous (the upright and just, who are in right standing with God), but for the lawless and unruly, for the ungodly and sinful, for the irreverent and profane, for those who strike and beat and [even] murder fathers and strike and beat and [even] murder mothers, for manslayers,[For] impure and immoral persons, those who abuse themselves with men, kidnapers, liars, perjurers - and whatever else is opposed to wholesome teaching and sound doctrine as laid down by the glorious Gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted." 1Timothy 1:6-11 (AMP). In 2 Corinthians 5:17 (KJV) "Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new." Going by what Paul said both in 1Timothy 1:6-11 and 2 Corinthians 5:17, the Christian is not under the law. The law was never intended for the new man in Christ and I still maintain that. Westminster Confession of Faith Chapter 1, Paragraphs 6 and 10: I more than agree with the West Ministers that we need the Holy Spirit in our understanding of the Bible; you can call me one of the West Ministers in that regard. I still prefer to go by the Bible though and I still maintain that these are good scholarly man made "documents". My dictionary defines a doctrine as a set of beliefs or principles held and taught by a Church, political party, or other group. I wonder why you don't want me to refer to these man made “documents” as man made doctrines. They may be derived from the Bible, but they are still derived based on man’s own understanding and interpretation of the Bible. From where I stand, they are man made doctrines. Kindly shed in more light why they are not man made doctrines. Thank you for being such an excellent teacher, unfortunately I have to disagree with you on the law. Stay so blessed, King T! |