Bible Question: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase “x” days and “x”nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the “x” days and at least parts of the “x” nights? |
Bible Answer: Hi, rstrats... Welcome to the forum! I believe you mean practice rather than idiom. Yes, the Hebrews would include the first thing in a series as one, the second as two, etc. If they said, "two days hence" that would be what you and I would call tomorrow. The Greek and Roman practice would be to skip the current day as we do today: "two days hence" would mean the day after tomorrow. In Him, Doc |