Subject: Did John really baptise Jesus?? |
Bible Note: Hello lightedsteps, Allow my brief but direct response. With all due respect, I missed nothing. You apparently did not read what I posted? Your theology has many gaps in it- from Bibliology to (now) the Person and Work of our Lord Jesus Christ. It is not up to me to get you to "see the light":-( I do have an understanding of the nature of our Lord Jesus Christ- one that is in line with Orthodoxy! Are you familiar with the Nicene Creed or to what the Hypostatic Union means? Have you studied these? You state, "You seemed to have missed the point, Jesus was totally, Man, and totally God. This means Jesus had two diametrically opposed natures, the nature of man, (sin nature) and the Nature of God, Divine nature. This would mean that no matter how depraved the nature of man might be, the Divine nature of God is greater, thereby able to overcome any temptation to sin." Wrong. The is called Nestorianism and it is a heresy! Nestorianism is the error that Jesus is two distinct persons. The council of Ephesus was convened in 431 to address the issue and pronounced that Jesus was one person in two distinct and inseparable natures: divine and human. AS CARM notes: "The problem with Nestorianism is that it threatens the atonement. If Jesus is two persons, then which one died on the cross? If it was the "human person" then the atonement is not of divine quality and thereby insufficient to cleanse us of our sins." Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |