Bible Question:
Matt 3 - When John the baptist baptised the lost chilren of Israel at the river Jordan, the first confessed their sins and then he baptised them by saying the folliwing: Matt 3:11 "I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me will come one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not fit to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire." Later on in Matthew 3 John "Baptises" Jesus. How did he achieve this? If you follow what happend in from the beginning. Jesus was supposed to confess his sins.. But he didnt have any.. The words that John uses to baptise do not apply to Jesus. If I imagine John Baptising Jesus, how would he say it? I baptise you with water for repentance? But jesus need not repent. But after me will come someone more powerful than I,and he will baptise you with the holy spirit and fire. Who is going to come after Jesus who is more powerful that John and Baptise Jesus? If John really baptised Jesus, it would have been in vain because the words that he uttered while baptising Jesus would not have been truthful. As Jesus needed no repenting and after him no-one else was coming. So did John really baptise Jesus? Or was it just for show? Just so that the Holy Spirit may come done upon Jesus? And that John himself may see that Jesus is indeed the christ? If John says that after him, (Jesus) will baptise with the holy spirit; why then do people still baptise with water? According to the bible we should be getting baptised with holy spirit and not water as Jesus has already come. Further more Jesus' disciples baptised with the holy spirit. Why then do we 2000 years later use water? |
Bible Answer: Hi cecilk welcome to the forum First you need to understand, the bible is "ALL" truth, if any part of the bible is not truth, then the whole bible is useless to us, it then can not be trusted at all. So YES John did baptize Jesus as depicted in the Bible. I think your question is more on the order of "WHY". Even though Jesus was without sin, when He was baptized by John, could it have been for the original sin of Adam that is upon the flesh of all men? Being 100 percent Man, and 100 percent God, Jesus had to have had the sin of Adam dwelling in his flesh, because he was born of a woman. Job 15:14 What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous? Job 25:4 How then can man be justified with God? or how can he be clean that is born of a woman? Jesus had to have sin dwelling in His flesh, otherwise He could not have been tempted as we are, because the temptation would have been of a perfect deity. Heb 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. That part of Jesus that was truly flesh, had to be purged of the sin of Adam, in order for it to be said, He was without spot or blemish. Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God? 1Pe 1:19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: It was the will of God that He (Jesus) be baptized, to fulfill all righteousness. Joh 4:34 Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work. Joh 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. Grace be unto you lightedsteps |