Bible Question:
Matt 3 - When John the baptist baptised the lost chilren of Israel at the river Jordan, the first confessed their sins and then he baptised them by saying the folliwing: Matt 3:11 "I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me will come one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not fit to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire." Later on in Matthew 3 John "Baptises" Jesus. How did he achieve this? If you follow what happend in from the beginning. Jesus was supposed to confess his sins.. But he didnt have any.. The words that John uses to baptise do not apply to Jesus. If I imagine John Baptising Jesus, how would he say it? I baptise you with water for repentance? But jesus need not repent. But after me will come someone more powerful than I,and he will baptise you with the holy spirit and fire. Who is going to come after Jesus who is more powerful that John and Baptise Jesus? If John really baptised Jesus, it would have been in vain because the words that he uttered while baptising Jesus would not have been truthful. As Jesus needed no repenting and after him no-one else was coming. So did John really baptise Jesus? Or was it just for show? Just so that the Holy Spirit may come done upon Jesus? And that John himself may see that Jesus is indeed the christ? If John says that after him, (Jesus) will baptise with the holy spirit; why then do people still baptise with water? According to the bible we should be getting baptised with holy spirit and not water as Jesus has already come. Further more Jesus' disciples baptised with the holy spirit. Why then do we 2000 years later use water? |
Bible Answer: Cecilk, Welcome to the forum! John did indeed object didn't he. Mat 3:14 But John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?" So John testified in that to Christ's sinlessness. Though John didn't fully understand what was happening. Though even still, I certainly hope that John's words did apply to Jesus in another way! One might say, how is it that Christ can be baptized for repentence of sins? I ask you also, how is it that Christ was slain for sins? Christ performed all parts of perfect righteousness for those whom He has purchased for the Father. This is what our Lord responded. Mat 3:15 But Jesus answering said to him, "Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." Then he *permitted Him. Christ did not merely need to accomplish death, He also needed to accomplish everything which the Father expected of you and me. If we say that Christ can not live and work for sinners, it is also a denial that He can die for sinners. But praise God that Christ has not only died in my place (substitutionary atonement) Christ has also lived out perfect righteousness on my behalf! (imputation of Christ's righteousness). And so Christ became our righteousness (1 Cor 1:30). 2Co 5:21 "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." In Christ, Beja |