Subject: Why does Satan believe he can win? |
Bible Note: Dear atdcross, I see what you are saying regarding Amos 3:6. Yes, I concur, the evil in that passage is not the moral variety. As Piper says, "..the most painful situations..." I'd venture that he would agree. I wonder if when the Ninevites were destroyed they thought of it as evil? Regarding Ephesians 1:11, Gill would have most certainly agreed with the 1689 London Baptist Confession of Faith which states, "God hath decreed in Himself, from all eternity, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely and unchangeably, all things, whatsoever comes to pass; yet so as thereby is God neither the author of sin nor hath fellowship with any therein; nor is violence offered to the will of the creature, nor yet is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established; in which appears His wisdom in disposing all things, and power and faithfulness in accomplishing His decree. (Isaiah 46:10; Ephesians 1:11; Hebrews 6:17; Romans 9:15, 18; James 1:13; 1 John 1:5; Acts 4:27, 28; John 19:11; Numbers 23:19; Ephesians 1:3-5)" (chapter 3, paragraph 1) I don't think I could express it any better. You wrote, "Matt 10:29. It’s pretty frightening to picture the hand of God just smashing a helpless, innocent bird to the ground for no reason." This is what is a logical fallacy called a "strawman fallacy." It is a rhetorical technique that caricatures an opponents argument in order to make it easier to attack. The logical response is for you to document the source of these words you've put into my mouth. As you ignored my explanation, I'll assume you have not looked at the other passages I suggested, and that my further explanation would. Your other comments simply reflect opinion, hence the use of phrases like "I think" and "it seems". I'd like to kindly, but firmly, remind you that we are here to study the Bible, not opinion. Thank you for your time. In Him, Doc |