Subject: Why does Satan believe he can win? |
Bible Note: Dear Atdcross, It's pretty presumptuous of me to attempt to account for the words of someone like John Piper, but I'll do my best. You wrote, "Amos 3:6. The calamity is with reference to judgment and not moral evil." I'm confused. I don't know of any case where God's judgment does not always involve matters of morality. You wrote, "Job 1:21; 2:10. As seen 'behind the scenes' of Job's story, it is Satan and not God who has 'taken away' and 'covered [him] with boils.'" God is sovereign. If the book of Job doesn't teach that, it doesn't teach anything. Then came to him all his brothers and sisters and all who had known him before, and ate bread with him in his house. And they showed him sympathy and comforted him for all the evil that the LORD had brought upon him. And each of them gave him a piece of money and a ring of gold. And the LORD blessed the latter days of Job more than his beginning. And he had 14,000 sheep, 6,000 camels, 1,000 yoke of oxen, and 1,000 female donkeys. (Job 42:11-12 ESV) You wrote, "Eph 1:11. Note, it does not say God 'causes all things' especially moral evil and every tragedy and sickness that occurs." This interpretation would be in keeping with the rest of Scripture. In addition, another authority, John Gill, comments on this verse, "...according to a purpose of God, which can never be frustrated; and according to the purpose of 'that God', as one of Stephens's copies reads, that is the author of all things but sin; of the works of creation and of providence, and of grace and salvation; and who works all these according to His will, just as He pleases, and according to the counsel of it, in a wise and prudent manner, in the best way that can be devised; for He is wonderful in counsel, and excellent in working; wherefore His counsel always stands, and He does all his pleasure: and hence the inheritance which the saints obtain in Christ, and are predestinated to, is sure and certain." You wrote, "Matt 10:29. It does not say God caused the sparrow to fall." If the fall of the sparrow is not subject to providence, then who does have such power? That's pretty frightening to think that there is something out there that can force God's hand! I bet if you try you can think of some Scripture passages that do assert God's control over all of nature. Here's a couple to start with Psalm 104:21-30; 1 Kings 17:4-6. You wrote, "Prov 16:33. As I see it, God may intervene in the roll of dice, however, there is no indication that his control over the affairs of men are as exhaustive and minute. As the TEV suggests, the men throwing the dice are doing so 'to learn God's will' (that is, they are in a posture of submission to God) and, therefore, 'God himself determines the answer.'" So what you are saying is that God only works in the lives of men when they are in submission to Him. Are you sure you want to stand on that doctrinal position? If you are unsatisfied with my answers, I'd commend you to the website of John Piper (www.desiringgod.org) where you can personally question his theology. If you are interested in a relatively short explanation of the orthodox doctrine of the sovereignty of God you might read A. W. Pink's "God's Sovereignty Defined." If you want to get it fully down pat, I'd encourage you to read Pink's book "The Sovereignty of God." Thank you for your questions. In Him, Doc |