Bible Question:
I am sorry, but your reponse is way over the top of my Head. Are you saying Jesus was telling them he had authority to be called God because he is within the law and that he was the law. Because he said ", that the Father is in me, and I in him." Him and his Farther hold the same attributes (nature) and are equal therefore he is authorized to say he is God? He was using Their law as example, by saying are you allowed to call yourselves gods within your own law because you have authority within YOUR law. Well the same concept or rule holds for him and his farther? Thanks for your help. God Bless Noveta |
Bible Answer: Hi Noveta, I thing what Brad was saying is something like this: "You (the pharisees) already know, from your law (Psalms 82, Exodus 21,22) that mere men are sometimes called gods. Why then do you have such a negative reaction if I (Jesus) say I am the Son of God?" Does that help? Love in Christ, Mark |