Bible Question:
But why is ch 2 interpreted as a retelling of day 6 when the account and language are both different. It seems ch 1 is talking about the creation of mankind, and Ch 2 that of a specific man and woman. And while in the first story man is told to be fruitful and multiply and fill the earth on day 6 when he is created...Adam and Eve are never actually told this. So even if you were to believe that everything up through the fall, curse, and banishment were still the same day...how does reconcile that gap? That in a detailed account of many discussions with God, He would never say the one thing to Adam and Eve that He said to man on the day of his creation. "Also go back and read the account of Creation in Genesis. Pay particular attention to Chapter 1 vs. 26. Notice that God did not say let us create Adam, but instead said, "man". Besides this pointing to the ligical conclusion that if man needed creating, then he (man) did not yet exist; the information in the previous verses clearly do not mention man." Yes, I see man being created on day 6, and I get the logic that in being created then he didn't not exist prior to day 6. What I don't see is the logical progression that the events of chapter 2 are the events of day 6. That's what I'm confused about, sorry if that was unclear before... I will go look up the Eph references though... |
Bible Answer: Hi Xina, Perhaps this will help. The account of man's creation given in Genesis 2 speaks as God were creating the first man, then the first woman. Therefore, if God created man on the 6th day, as described in chapter 1, and then chapter 2 gives us a detailed accounting of the creation of the first man, it must be the creation that took place on the sixth day. This fits well with a Hebrew style of writing that gives a summary version of events first, then goes back in and gives additional details. Our newspapers do the same thing, giving a paragraph summary at the top of the column, then filling in the details. Love in Christ, Mark |