Bible Question:
I have not found any postings on this topic, but if there are some, please refer me. The topic is divorce. Jesus expressly states that divorce is not legitimate unless adultery is involved. When Joseph discovered that Mary was pregnant with Jesus, he considered divorcing her, but the angel encouraged him not to do this on the grounds that Mary's baby was from God. It is also stated that Joseph was a righteous man, so divorcing Mary would have been righteous, on the grounds that she must have committed adultery. The bible does describes that the Holy Spirit came upon her and impregnated her. If this is not adultery, why not? If it is adultery, what is the significance of this? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Parable! You ask a very interesting question, but make some huge leaps in logic. :-) You state that: "It is also stated that Joseph was a righteous man, so divorcing Mary would have been righteous, on the grounds that she must have committed adultery." These statements simply do not logically follow from one another. Even though Joseph is a righteous man that does not mean that he is sinless. So, he could certainly be a righteous man and consider doing something sinful. Secondly, Joseph only considered putting her away privately. He did not actually do it. So, even if his considered action would have been sinful, he never actually did it. Finally, we know that Mary did not commit adultery since she knew no man until after the birth of Jesus. While most would have considered her to be either immoral or an adulteress because they did not know what God was doing, the fact remains that she did not commit adultery. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |