Subject: Can we disappoint the omniscient God? |
Bible Note: Greetings Makarios - there has been some discussion on the Forum previously about the omniscience of Jesus prior to the cross. When He emptied Himself (Phil 2:7), did He "set aside" this aspect of His participation in the Godhead? I see Jesus in perfect communion with the Father, and thus all that the Father revealed to Him, Jesus knew and He told His disciples as well! (John 17:8) In order to experience man's walk on earth, it makes sense that He had to also "walk by faith", totally dependent upon His Father. Also, if Jesus were omniscient, why would He not know the day or the hour of His return? (Mt 24:26) - He was made a little lower than the angels therefore, if the angels do not know, even without this verse could we infer that Jesus relinquished some of His Divine attributes for us as well . . . If He gave up His life, and suffered the forsaking of God for us, what would be so out of line to suggest that He set aside His omniscience? He could lay down His life and take it up again; could He not also do the say with His omnisicince? - I'm still trying to ponder this whole possibility . . . if this is too controversial, let's just leave it. Thanks for any insight or input you might have. Blessings, mommapbs |