Bible Question:
Greetings Shankara! You wrote: "You have to be careful about rendering the word "evil" from ancient Hebrew to English, particularly as it is read from Isaiah 45:7. This is where a great deal of confusion among Protestants and Catholics gets turned around. The word here means not "evil" as we understand it, but more in the meaning of the word "confusion"" What is your evidence for this statement? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: I am sorry for being so slow in responding to all those who had questions concerning my reply to the person who asked,"Why does God allow evil in the world." I have been busy in other directions over the holiday. I hope this response covers everyones questions and statements concerning this matter. If not, feel free to contact me at shankara@comcast.net In reference to part of the sources for my reply, I used Isaiah 45:7 and the way it uses the Hebrew word "rah" here as a substitute for the English word "evil." It will only require a little research on the questioner's behalf to verify that the more correct rendering of that word from ncient Hebrew to modern English would be the word "disasters." Most of your newer and better translations have inserted this correction. One of these is the New Jerusalem Bible, an excellent translation with a substantive number of translators of high asnd favorable reknown. While the King James is without any doubt the most poetic and verbally beautiful translation ever done, as well as being my favorite and the one I mot often use,nevertheless it like all translations as well as people has many shortcomings and mistakes. Though, as in this case, I feel with but a few corrections it is by and large as good a translation as any, so please don't let any correction I might offer be interpreted as a condemnation of this incredible work. |