Subject: Christians before Jesus came |
Bible Note: No, I don't have a problem with this seeming conflict. I'm not sure but it seems Jesus was applying this principle of "no one comes..." to those who heard His voice then AND all those who read or understand His Message through some other medium forever thereafter. In my mind, since the NT also provides this guidance as cited in Rom 2, this is the only way I can see resolving this seeming conflict. Also this would accommodate our God's Perfect Sense of Justice, which we all face on Judgment Day. How do you resolve the conflict? How do you interpret Paul's guidance in Rom 2? How about if we get a reading of the "no one comes" phrase from our Greek scholars? Tim Moran, could one of you respond? Thanks. Blessings to you. Country Girl PS: By the way, I also noticed in several of your recent posts, you have a tendancy to use "your" when you really want to use "you're." Sorry, it's just the proofreader in me...it's been done to me so much. Just trying to help. |