Subject: post resurrection accounts |
Bible Note: Hi, Bub; 2 Tim 3:16 does refer to the New Testament precisely because it is inspired. It is true that Paul referred to Jewish Scripture, but if God inspired Paul to write those words then I see no reason to doubt that God intended them to apply to the New Testament as well. Other than the Law, I don't recall that God ever told anyone to compile a collection of writings and call them "Scripture". Men of God, led by the Holy Spirit, have done that. Including the prophets was an obvous choice, since they spoke God's words and so must have been inspired. But what about the Psalms? David was not called a prophet, yet many Psalms were clearly inspired. The same can be said of the books attributed to Solomon, not to mention Job, Ruth, and Esther. Likewise, the Gospels were an obvious choice, since they described the life and recorded the words of the Author of Scripture. The same can be said of Acts. The rest of the NT (allowing a little fudging for Hebrews) was written by men who knew Jesus personally. Their works are a reasonable choice as well. God often intends more than his servants realize when they do his bidding. Joseph understood that the actions of his brothers led to the salvation of his family. But God meant the brothers' deed to do more than preserve Joseph's family. He meant it to lead to the crucible of Egypt, the Exodus, and the nation of Israel. So I conclude that when Paul wrote "all Scripture", God meant ALL Scripture. Peace and grace, Steve aka Indiana Jones |