Subject: Why did God become a Man? |
Bible Note: Hi Love Fountain, I think that capemay was correct in her question when she capitalized Man. By capitalizing Man it shows the contrast between Him and mankind. Your NIV does not make that distinction. A version like the NASB or NKJ will also point out the difference between Him and the devil. [him who] NASB Heb 2:14, Since then the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil." |