Subject: What is the Holy Ghost? |
Bible Note: Greetings Leox! Thanks for the reply my friend! You wrote: "Likewise, when the words ho Theos are used in the NT, we are speaking of Almighty God. When Theos appears by itself, it more than likely is referring to simply any deity." However, this simply isn't true! I studied Greek in college for several years, and I have been translating koine Greek for about 17 years now. Nouns without out the definite article in Greek are not necessarily indefinite. There are others factors which must be taken into consideration. Context is one, but there are also grammatical constructions, such as John 1:1, where the definite article should not be used. The reason 'theos' does not have a definite article is because 'logos' is the subject, not 'theos'. Further, 'theos' with the article does not necessarily always refer to Almighty God. For instance, consider 2 Cor. 4:4. Now, back to your quote, there are a number of instances where 'theos' occurs in the nominative case and without the definite article, yet refers to God, not some indefinite deity. Allow me to quote from a former post: ************************************** There is significance to the fact that ?theos? does not have a definite article. But, the significance is not that ?theos? thus becomes an adjective. Allow me to demonstrate a number of times in the New Testament where ?theos? is used without an article, yet remains a noun. 1) Lk. 20:38 says, ?He is not the God of the dead??. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 2) Rom. 8:33 says, ??It is God who justifies?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 3) 1 Cor. 8:4 says, ??that there is no God but one?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 4) 2 Cor. 1:21 says, ??and God anointed us?. Yet, ?theos? has no definite article. 5) Others include: 2 Cor. 5:5, 2 Cor. 5:19, Gal. 6:7, Eph. 4:6, Phil. 2:13, 1 Thess. 2:5, 2 Thess. 2:16, 1 Tim. 2:5, and Rev. 21:7. These are just the examples where ?theos? is in the nominative case. There are other examples involving other cases. Now, check out your NWT and see if any of these verses translates the anarthrous ?theos? as ?divine? or ?a god?. The significance of the anarthrous ?theos? in John 1:1 is very simple. If both ?theos? and ?logos? had the definite article, John 1:1 would be saying that the ?logos? and ?theos? were the same person. Yet, John has already said in John 1:1 that the ?logos? was with God. The doctrine of the Trinity does not teach that Jesus is the same Person as the Father, or that the Father is the same Person as the Holy Spirit. What it does teach is that Jesus is fully God. The Father is fully God. And, the Holy Spirit is fully God. There are three distinct Persons, but only one God. This is why John does not use the definite article before ?theos? in John 1:1. Jesus is not the Father, but Jesus is fully God. Now, assuming for the moment that the JW?s are correct about their translation (which I reject), then Jesus is another God. Yet, in Is. 43:10, Jehovah Himself says that there are no other gods before Him, nor after Him. There are also other verses in Scripture which teach that there is only ONE God. Rom. 8:30 ? ?since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.? 1 Tim. 2:5 ? ?For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,? Eph. 4:6 ? ?one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.? So, the JW?s translation of John 1:1 in their NWT directly contradicts these Scriptures by teaching there are in fact at least two Gods. Which is true? Is there only One God, or are there more than one Gods? *************************************** The simple fact is that there is no direct correlation between the usage of the definite and indefinite articles in English and in Greek. It is much more complex than the JW's pretend it to be. As for the question of what John meant when he said that no one has seen God, go to post # 104171. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |