Bible Question: I don't know if this is a questions or if I was just me thinking out loud but, here it goes. I was wondering why did the Lord have Moses to write the first 5 books of the bible oppose to Adam doing Genesis as far as he could take it and so on? |
Bible Answer: Greetings jbw! I am so thankful that we have God's written Word! I could never remember all the Truths contained therein! In my opinion, the record of God's relationship with man was and still is oral - meaning that we confess with our mouth that the Lord He is God, we tell of His excellent greatness, His all sufficient Grace and everlasting love. If you study the early genealogies, you will find that there are only a couple of generations between Adam and Noah - so not much would be omitted in an oral account of the Creation and man's Fall. Yet, how effective was this oral record? The wickedness of man increased upon the earth . . . hence THE FLOOD! Do remember that the purpose of God's Word is to reveal Himself, His love for us and our need for Him! After the Flood and the confusion of the languages at Babel, it seems prudent to assume that more attention would be given to a written record as this would surpass the oral method and ensure a more accurate transmission of history. However, man's perceptions of historical fact are always skewed by the recorder; they can not be compared to God's Authorship! Yet, who God chooses to record His Truth is up to Him! Moses was His chosen instrument as were many others from all walks of life. Don't forget that we, who are in Christ, have also been chosen to be vessels of His Truth. We are HIS witnesses. I hope that this helps. mommapbs |