Subject: Why does NIV OMIT verses in KJV? |
Bible Note: Thanks to all who responded to my question In response to this particular response, I would like to say. What is there, I consider infallible. What is there is not what I had questioned. What was in question was what was not there. I expect that the only perfect copy of the word is the originals. Considering the fact that I couldn't understand the originals if I had them in front of me, I go on faith that the translated copies I do have are as true to the originals as is possible. There are translations out there that are not true to the word. To a layman like myself, they could be a snare. I personally intend to do everything within my power not to be snared by such ignorance and deception. ie "You fill my cup to the brim," versus "My cup runneth over." |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 1 | Author | ||
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Esther Shilpa | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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jhvh3n1 | ||
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jhvh3n1 | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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chuck123 | ||
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nexgen | ||
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GeorJoy | ||
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EdB | ||
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John Reformed | ||
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GeorJoy | ||
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nexgen |