Bible Question:
I love my NIV. I also feel that it is a truly inspired revision of the word and that the Lord led me to it. However, my faith in this particular version was just jolted when I was reading the book of Acts and discovered with the help of my "Henry Comentary" that it OMITS verses that are in the KJV. Specifically Acts 8:37. If as I have determined from my research, this is due to the dateline of the manuscripts, why is the OMITTED verse number simply skiped over, ie 35 36 38 rather than continued in numerical sequence? |
Bible Answer: Bible Publishers have two ways to handle the situation of a verse that the translators determine has questionable authenticity. Often the verse appears to have been added to the original because it does not appear in the older manuscripts or is written in a different style than the rest of the work. Some publishers annotate the verse letting the reader make the decision if the verse belongs or not. Others eliminate the verse and include a marginal note or footnote telling the reader what was done. NIV does the latter. If you look at the footnotes the NIV explains the verse you referenced is not found in the older manuscripts therefore they don’t include it. I personally avoid all Bibles that eliminate the verse. I want to make the decision reading the verse in place. EdB |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 1 | Author | ||
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Esther Shilpa | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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jhvh3n1 | ||
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jhvh3n1 | ||
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TheCurtMan | ||
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chuck123 | ||
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nexgen | ||
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GeorJoy | ||
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EdB | ||
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John Reformed | ||
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GeorJoy | ||
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nexgen |