Bible Question:
Does anyone out there not believe that Isaiah 14:12 refers to Satan but me? Verse 4 clearly indicates that the Lord was referring to the king of Babylon. And now that I dared to say that, can we then say that Ezekiel 28:11-19 refers to Satan? Verse 12 says God was speaking to the king of Tyre. For if we follow the rules of Biblical Interpretation, we must interpret everything according to its context. And prophecy allows for hyperbole and figures of speech. (Notice Ezekiel 29:1-7) Help me to see. Student7300 |
Bible Answer: Well said again, Student7300, but allow me to elaborate a bit. Human sin and imperfection were, of course, preceded by sin and imperfection in the spirit realm, as Jesus' words at John 8:44 and the account in chapter 3 of Genesis reveal. The dirge recorded at Ezekiel 28:12-19, though directed to the human "king of Tyre," evidently parallels the course taken by the spirit son of God who first sinned. The pride of "the king of Tyre," his making himself 'a god,' his being called a "cherub," and the reference to "Eden, the garden of God," certainly correspond to Biblical information concerning Satan the Devil, who became puffed up with pride, is linked to the serpent in Eden, and is called "the god of this system of things." see 1Ti 3:6; Ge 3:1-5, 14, 15; Re 12:9; 2Co 4:4. Truthfinder |