Subject: Where was satan when he first sinned? |
Bible Note: As I said before, I see the "Garden of God" as a euphemism, or another name, for Eden. "But if in all instances where Mount of God occurs in the Bible it refers to the one in Jerusalem, then why would be a different Mount in Ezek 28 and if one decides that it is a different one what right or basis does he have to conclude this?" Aren't you doing just that by equating it with Eden (and not Jerusalem)? In truth, there were a number of mountains called "the mountain of God", not just one. Ex. 3:1, Horeb Ex. 4:27, I assume the same (Horeb) Ex. 18:5, Sinai (might Sinai be the same as Horeb?) Ex. 24:13, Sinai Ps. 68:15, "the mountain of Bashan" 1 Kings 19:8, Horeb Daniel 9:20, I conceed is probably Jerusalem, one of the many "mountains of God". These must be considered as well. Note that in 1 Kings, Jerusalem was already in existence. See also Galatians 4:25 for the location of Sinai - Arabia, not in Israel. With this as evidence, why do you fault me for saying, "I see the mountain of God as being distinct and separate from the garden of God - the former being a euphemism for 'Heaven' the latter for 'Eden."? As to equating Jerusalem with Eden, there were Cherubim to guard the way back into Eden. There was a world-wide flood to destroy any remaining evidence of Eden (Gen 6-9). Jerusalem is not the same as Eden. Since Ezekiel uses figurative language for the description of Satan, why must the rest of it be absolutely literal? Remember, Satan is a spirit being (Eph 6:11-12). Again, I do see the Garden of God as being Eden. I don't see the mountain of God, in this instance, as being Jerusalem (and there is much Biblical precedence for it not having to be Jerusalem). I see it as being Heaven - the only other location we knew about during the days before the fall. Remember Ezekiel 28:16 says he was cast from the mountain of God, it does not say "garden of God". The text allows for this to be a separate event from the deception and curse in Genesis 3. |