Bible Question:
I thank Prayon for his response to my question as I first stated it. However after rereading what I wrote I feel I need to restate my orignal question in way that will lead to a more open discussion. I have heard many men explain that a particular Biblical doctrine or teaching doesn’t apply today because the writer was responding to “thus and such”. Or "this" isn’t for today because it is addressing a custom of the time that is no longer in effect. In light of the above statement will someone explain to me why God, would allow the inclusion, into the Bible, of doctrine, precepts, statutes, ordinances, or commandments that would become invalid or outmoded because of changing customs or social trends? Or why God would allow the human writer’s bias or prejudices to contaminate the writing? |
Bible Answer: What are you specifically referring to? Some of these instances depend on the context of a particular passage, others are open for debate! |