Subject: Definite article in Hebrew and Greek? |
Bible Note: Dear Tim, Thank you for your response. I believe I have a better understanding now. An example of a definite article would be in Rev 12:10 when satan is called "the accuser". Since "the" is used, we have a definte article which leaves us no misunderstanding of who the accuser is. This is not really a good example, since this is the only time in the KJV "the accuser" is stated in this way but if it was elsewhere also then we would have understanding of who is being referred to because of the rule of the definite article. So,if my understanding of your reply regarding a definite article is right, when a definite article is used in Scripture, it always refers to same person, place, thing, idea or event, not allowed to change its meaning or referrence, according to the rules of grammar? Is this accurate? Bless you, Love Fountain |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Bible general Archive 1 | Author | ||
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JMHO | ||
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JMHO | ||
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octotex | ||
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lumarkarn | ||
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Love Fountain | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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Love Fountain | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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JMHO | ||
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JMHO | ||
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openhart2god | ||
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savedbygrace777 | ||
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pearlofaguitar |