Bible Question:
Philippians 2:3 (ASV 1901) "[doing] nothing through faction or through vainglory, but in lowliness of mind each counting other better than himself;" (Note: the entire text of the ASV is available online at bible.crosswalk.com(slash)OnlineStudyBible) . . . Dear R.V.H.: Let me begin by saying that I DO count YOU better than myself. I mean that sincerely. In no way am I above anyone else. My reply is not a personal attack on you. There is no malice in my question. Please re-read my original answer to your original question about capitalization of pronouns referring to Deity in the Bible. . . . "Some religious literature chooses to capitalize pronouns that refer to the deity. As in the original languages, GOD'S WORD does not capitalize any pronouns (unless they begin sentences). In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else. In these cases the presence of capitalized pronouns would be misleading.". (p. xiii, GOD'S WORD, Grand Rapids: World Publishing, 1995) . . . Let's take a look at the main points in the above quotation. . . . 1) Some religious literature chooses to capitalize pronouns that refer to the deity. Some do not. . . . 2) The Scriptures "in the original languages" do not capitalize any pronouns. If the original manuscripts did not capitalize pronouns, and those Scriptures have endured until now, then WHY does anyone today feel that pronouns referring to the Deity MUST be capitalized? . . . 3) "In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else." If SCHOLARS -- those who have learned Hebrew and Greek and have studied the Bible IN THE ORIGINAL LANGUAGES -- if they are in some cases uncertain, is there not some arrogance in the assumption that the rest of us could just take a red pencil and go merrily through the Bible, capitalizing as the mood struck us? (Perhaps you have studied Greek and Hebrew at seminary level. If you have, then more power to you.) . . . 4) "In these cases the PRESENCE of capitalized pronouns would be misleading." If, on the other hand, the ABSENCE of capitalized pronouns is misleading, then blame God. For that is how the Bible was written in the original languages. The argument that the original manuscripts (as well as certain English translations including, but not limited to, the King James) are somehow misleading sounds to me like criticism of the Author of the book. (I am not writing the Bible. I can capitalize in my personal writing whenever I want to. That is not the issue here.) . . . My point is: Since you apparently do not understand my original reply, quoted above, then you could continue to ask questions about the lack of capitalization of pronouns until the Rapture, but any answer would be meaningless to you. That is, if you cannot grasp the concept that "In some cases scholars are uncertain whether pronouns in the original texts refer to God or someone else. In these cases the presence of capitalized pronouns would be misleading." . . . Again, WHO is going to make those decisions? Sincere laymen, Catholics, Protestants, Charismatics, non-Charismatics, liturgical churches, non-liturgical churches, the Mormons, the Jehovah's Witnesses, the Christian scientists? . . . If only the solution to the problem of capitalization were as simple and simplistic as you imply they are! I'm not against capitalization. I'm just against every Thomas, Richard and Henry with a red pencil tampering with the Bible. |
Bible Answer: Hi JVH, You expressed some interest a while back in a comparison of scripture. I haven't really been thinking about it, but I want to express myself tonight. O.K? The real comparison is between lCor 4:20 and lCor 14:2. "For the kingdom of God does not consist in words, but in power. What do you desire? Shall I come to you with a rod or with love and a spirit of gentleness?" Compared with, "Pursue love, yet desire earnestly spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy. For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men, but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries." This study revolves around the word "spirit". Between lCor 4:20 and 6:17 there are five 'spirits'; spirit of gentleness, absent in body but present in spirit,and I with you in spirit, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord, (and lastly,) But the one who joins himself to the Lord, is one spirit with Him. Between 1Cor 14:2 and 14:18 there are five "spirit" words. "...but in his spirit he speaks mysteries, my spirit prays, I shall pray with the spirit, I shall sing with the spirit, Otherwise if you bless in the spirit only..." It is because of these portions of scriptures that I think it reasonable to know why he chose the number five in verse nineteen, "however, in the church I desire to speak five words with my mind, that I may instruct others also, rather than ten thousand words in a tongue." There are also five 'spiritual' words around lCor 2:13,"which things we also speak, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words." or interpreting spiritual things to spiritual men.NASB note in margin. Later, Ray |