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NASB | Revelation 22:18 ¶ I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Revelation 22:18 ¶ I testify and warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book [its predictions, consolations, and admonitions]: if anyone adds [anything] to them, God will add to him the plagues (afflictions, calamities) which are written in this book; [Deut 4:2] |
Subject: Does God speak to us in dreams today? |
Bible Note: Hi Doc, In regard to Joel's prophecy: Joel 2:28 And it shall come to pass afterward, [that] I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: 29 And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit. 30 And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke. 31 The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the LORD come. 32 And it shall come to pass, [that] whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call. It seems you are splitting this prophecy into two parts, either between vs. 28 and 29, or between 29 and thirty. If I understand you correctly, you are saying that the part about dreams and visions has already been fulfilled, and no longer occurs. We know that the part about blood and fire and pillars of smoke, and the sun becoming black and the moon to blood has not been fulfilled, at least not as history records. What is your basis in saying that the part about dreams and vision does not apply to today? Are these not the same last days as spoken of then? Would not Peter quoting this passage from Joel in its entirety indicate that it is to be taken as a unit, and not to be split? We know of no time in the "apostolic" era that would fulfill the latter portion of the prophecy. Would not this time spoken of last at least until the complete fulfillment of the prophecy? I just do not see any textual evidence to split the prophecy that way, and Peter's full quotation is a strong reason not to. I think what Bows has said is that: 1. All scripture is to be believed and used. 2. God does not change. 3. Every good thing comes from God. 4. God spoke in the days of Job in dreams, with personal words to turn men to Him. 5. God said that "afterword", the Spirit would be poured out, and people would prophesy, dream dreams, and see visions. 6. The promise of the Spirit is to all called by the LORD, even those "afar off". I think she answers the question very well, although you may or may not agree with her answer. I think the only real challenge to the idea that God speaks to us in dreams in the modern day is from Hebrew 1: Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; According to what I have read (although I admit I truly do not know as a certainty) this was not the last book of the Bible penned, and so even as the writer of Hebrews says that "in these last days God has spoken to us by His Son", God continued to speak through the agency of others as well (again, not that I put dreams in the same position as scripture). Personally, I think that what Kalos posted addresses this whole dream thing very well. Our dreams, when we believe them to be from God, are really between us and God. I see absolutely no reason from scripture that God could not, or would not, speak to someone through a dream. He may even use another to reveal the interpretation of the dream. I do not believe that dreams rate higher than scripture, and strictly pragmatically speaking, I don't think that the discussion or interpretation of dreams is appropriate for this forum, as it would distract from the actual study of God's written Word, which is what this forum is here for. But as far as examining scripturally whether or not we should discount any possiblility of God speaking to us in a dream, and what should be our scriptural response if we dream a dream that seems to be from God, I think Bows answered with a correct scriptural response, not "mis-handling" scripture, that Yes, God can and does, and Kalos, equally well, added that we must examine such according the the written Word, prayfully, remembering that everything is subordinate to scripture. Love in Christ, Mark |