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NASB | 1 Peter 3:1 In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands so that even if any of them are disobedient to the word, they may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Peter 3:1 In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands [subordinate, not as inferior, but out of respect for the responsibilities entrusted to husbands and their accountability to God, and so partnering with them] so that even if some do not obey the word [of God], they may be won over [to Christ] without discussion by the godly lives of their wives, [Eph 5:22] |
Bible Question:
So then, how applicable are the submission passages? Back in Bible times they were extremely revelant, becuase of the hierarchy of the family and because of social norms, which dictated that a women necessarily be subservient to her husband, or any man for that fact. Could we not say then that the principle that is being taught is general subservience to each other - man to woman, woman to man, employee to employer, Christian to Christian, etc - the principle of others first. It is a principle that the context of the verses would support, as well as the rest of the Bible. In the submission verses, the principle is more narrowly applied in the context of the culture. The principle today however would take on a different shape, right? I promise, I am really not trying to be argumentative. If I don't question this to it logical conclusion, it just doesn't make sense to me. I guess I keep looking for more concrete and discreet "rules of application" - because it seems that if there aren't any, the application becomes completely subject to man's opinion and sin, as well as being subject to the paradigms which we hold and subconsciously apply to it. |
Bible Answer: joyduncan You make an excellent point here and in the question you have just posed to Hank which Tim Moran answered. If we can ignore one passage because it pertains only to a social or cultural situation why can't we ignore them all? Who makes the call? This has been my soap box for years. I have always said that if we take one passage and say that does not pertain to Christians today because it was only addressing a situation in a particular church or social custom of the time we run the danger of eliminating all of God's directives. This is what the homosexual movement is trying to do, by saying the passages in the Bible that speak about homosexuality are only referring to homosexual acts committed by male temple prostitutes. And since we have no temple prostitutes today this doesn’t apply. When I was a child a child born out of wedlock was called a ‘bastard’ and was looked down upon. The child and situation carried a social stigma. Today no one is calls a child a ‘bastard’ (thankfully) and there is no social stigma of having a child out of wedlock therefore it could be said the laws against fornication were only addressing a social issue of a time and since that social issue doesn’t exist today fornication is okay. This in fact has become society’s view of that situation it just isn’t spoken of in those terms yet in the church but I imagine some day if the Lord tarries it may be. By the way my above example was in not meant to justify any social stigma against a child born out of wedlock. EdB |