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NASB | 1 Peter 3:1 In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands so that even if any of them are disobedient to the word, they may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Peter 3:1 In the same way, you wives, be submissive to your own husbands [subordinate, not as inferior, but out of respect for the responsibilities entrusted to husbands and their accountability to God, and so partnering with them] so that even if some do not obey the word [of God], they may be won over [to Christ] without discussion by the godly lives of their wives, [Eph 5:22] |
Bible Question:
Sure - the indicative mood (the most common of the 4) makes a statement or asks a question, whereas the imperative mood expresses the command - but could that be a little over-simplified? Isn't the present active imperative stronger in its command than the present middle imperative or the present passive imperative? By the way, I think the submit word in the 1 Pet. 3:1 verse is in the middle voice (isn't it a passive middle imperative? Forgive me, I may be a little rusty here.) When I was talking about semantics though I was referring more to your interpretive rules. Even if we identify that the Greek word used was in the imperative, we would need to define weather or not it was denoting a "cultural custom" - we would need a definition here - and a definition of what exactly a "specific command only to an individual or a group" is. I don't know that we can totally have an answer here - so I pose the question - can we really say that we have objective rules for application/interpretation? When we find ourselves getting into the nitty gritty of what rules to use when and where, haven't we completely opened the door (for open interpretation of many other passages)? Isn't the only protection from this kind of relativism a completely literal application of scripture? Do you see what I'm getting at - if the exception or interpretative filter isn't taken to its "Nth degree" we don't really see the potential repercussions of our treatment of the Word. By the way guys, you have completely "hooked" me -I am a studybibleforum junkie - I'm supposed to be working, but I can't tear myself away! |
Bible Answer: Greetings Joy! Withdraw can be tough for a junkie! :-) In general, an imperative is an imperative. One voice isn't necessarily stronger than another, nor is one tense necessarily stronger than another. However, individual words can actually change meanings in different voices. So, one must always be aware of that possibility. Just so I am clear, my number one rule is whether or not a command is actually given. After that is determined, I would only consider it limited in scope if it were addressed to a specific individual with a very limited scope. Other than that, any general command would be binding, even it was also a custom. As far as 'submit' in 1 Pet. 3:1 is concerned, it is actually a Present, Middle, Participle. In this case, it is probably used as an imperative, but the form is not imperative. Well, I have to run now! God Bless! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |