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NASB | 1 Peter 1:2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to obey Jesus Christ and be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace be yours in the fullest measure. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Peter 1:2 ¶ according to the foreknowledge of God the Father by the sanctifying work of the Spirit to be obedient to Jesus Christ and to be sprinkled with His blood: May grace and peace [that special sense of spiritual well-being] be yours in increasing abundance [as you walk closely with God]. [John 14:27] |
Subject: Election, Summary. |
Bible Note: Hello again Sam, we can continue, but probably so to the collective chagrin of the Forum as a whole.. You have brought up some good points here and prompted the asking of certain questions that would prove vital to coming to a mutual understanding of the relationship between election and salvation. Everyone starts out as an unbeliever, and the unbeliever makes a decision to respond to the calling of God. A person cannot be a 'believer' (or disciple) without first responding to God's call (Matt. 4:18-22). But in response to this, you say from your previous message, "If it is the unbeliever, then his will is not free to make a conscious choice." How do you come to the conclusion that the will of the unbeliever is not free to make this conscious choice or response to God's calling? Wouldn't this conclusion be in conflict with Matt. 4:18-22 since Peter, Andrew, James and John were not even 'believers' in Christ at the moment when Jesus called them? When a believer responds to the calling of God, then he/she is exercising their faith by obeying the commands of God, and as a result, growing in the faith (Hebrews 11). I also read Scripture as saying that God's call (or invitation) is to everyone to come to repentance and proclaim Him as Lord. I believe that it is possible for a person not to 'respond' to God's invitation (Matt. 19:21-22; compare Luke 14:25 with John 6:66). Are we confusing Christ's general 'invitation' to humanity with His calling? I agree that no man can come to Jesus unless the Father draws him (John 6:44), and the Lord calls His sheep by name (John 10:33) and they hear Him. How do you come to the conclusion that "If the Father calls all humans, then all humans will be raised to eternal life on the last day"? We agree that the Father draws men to Christ, and that they can only come to Jesus unless the Father draws them. Therefore, those who are 'chosen' by God before the foundation of the world will receive salvation. But I believe that the general 'invitation' is always there. I won't go any further on the 'invitation' since that would get us off of the original topic. I agree that election and salvation are inseparable. That is biblically sound and doctrinally correct, as proven in 1 Peter 1:2 and other Scriptures. I also agree that God does not elect anyone on the basis of a foreseeable action on the part of man. However, I believe that man's 'volition' comes into play when he makes a conscious 'response' to God's calling. If you say that man's 'volition' is besides the point, then what is the point in making any decisions about anything at all? If this is true, then I do not see any significance in man's existence. I see salvation as something that is pursued gladly and consciously, reaching out to God and calling upon His name, forever changing your destiny! This is what brings Him 'great pleasure'! And those who consciously make this kind of response to God's calling are part of the 'elect' (Romans 10:9,13). I believe that salvation and election is inseparably linked, but is salvation really the result of election? Instead of salvation being the result of election, it is solely based on our relationship with Christ- and that alone. It is not the fact that we have been chosen by God, it is the fact that we respond faithfully to His calling. Election is something that is entirely up to God and something that we cannot explain (Romans 11). Also, I am not advocating that we have to 'do' anything in order to be saved, except believe in Jesus and have faith that He will accomplish what He set out to do. We both know and agree that election is not a result of salvation. This view would be entirely unbiblical. But is salvation a result of election? I differ on this point with you, and I am prompted to go back 'to the basics' on salvation to answer that question. I took so long in responding to you because I wanted to take the time to read and study all the Scripture that even mentions the 'elect' or 'election' or God's 'chosen ones'.. So I looked in Strong's Concordance and found all the verses: Is. 42:1, 45:4, 65:9, 65:22; Matt. 24:24,31; Mark 13:22,27; Luke 18:7; Rom. 8:33; Col. 3:12; 1 Tim. 5:21; Titus 1:1; 1 Peter 1:2, 2:6; 2 John 1:1,13; 1 Peter 5:13; Rom. 9:11, 11:5,7,28; 1 Thess. 1:4; 2 Peter 1:10; Matt. 24:22; Mark 13:20; 2 Tim. 2:10.. After reading each and every single verse, I still come to the conclusion of believing in election. But I also come to the conclusion that salvation is in Jesus alone, even though the Father calls those whom He has chosen to have salvation in Jesus. |