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NASB | Colossians 1:14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Colossians 1:14 in whom we have redemption [because of His sacrifice, resulting in] the forgiveness of our sins [and the cancellation of sins' penalty]. |
Bible Question:
I was asked what I thought about capitalizing different versions of the pronoun "who". For instance in comparing Col 1:14 above with the NASB and the Amplified; we have both "in whom" and "in Whom". My answer would be that even though we know the One of whom the verse speaks, I would not count the pronoun "whom" as speaking of the Person Himself. In other words, the verse could just as well be translated, "in Him we have redemption"; in which case I would certainly capitalize the pronoun. The choice of "who" or "He" is up to the translator. I would influence or encourage a translator toward as much consistency as possible. The same Greek letters are used in Colossians 1:14 and Ephesians 1:7 but I will show the actual printed translations here. Colossians 1:14, NKJ, "in whom we have redemption..." Colossians 1:14, NASB, "in whom we have redemption..." Ephesians 1:7, NKJ, "In Him we have redemption..." Ephesians 1:7, NASB, "In Him [marginal note, Lit. whom] we have redemption..." I hope that this will give us a starting point for discussion. From the heart, Ray |
Bible Answer: Perhaps I have not made a sufficiently exhaustive search, but I do not find the Greek word (Strong's G3739) translated as "He" anywhere in the KJV. In Colossians 1:13-15 this word is used 3 times being translated as "who," "whom", and "who" respectively. In the Analytical-Literal Translation of the New Testament these words are translated in the same way. In addition, the Latin Vulgate uses "qui," "quo," and "qui." Since the antecedent of this word can only indicate Diety, and if you are capitalizing pronouns of Diety, then it would only seem to follow that the various words translated from this Greek pronoun would be capitalized. My very humble opinion, only. |