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NASB | 1 Corinthians 14:34 ¶ The women are to keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves, just as the Law also says. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 14:34 ¶ the women should be silent in the churches, for they are not authorized to speak, but are to take a subordinate place, as the Law says. |
Subject: Would you kindly explain this text. |
Bible Note: I have looked at the word "laleo" in every verse it is used in the New Testament. I see no where where the context requires the definition you gave from Strong's comments on "lego." It simply means to speak, talk, say etc... I don't know what led Strong to make the comment that he did on "laleo" but reading how the word is used in the New Tastament is evidently not his source. Vine defines this word like this: "laleo for which see laleo_under_SAY, is used several times in 1Cor. 14; the command prohibiting women from speaking in a church gathering, 1_Cor_14:34,35, is regarded by some as an injunction against chattering, a meaning which is absent from the use of the verb everywhere else in the NT; it is to be understood in the same sense as in 1_Cor_14:2,3-6,9,11,13,18,19,21,23,27-29,39." I would urge you to read the verses cited by Vine and substitute the definition that Strong used "AN EXTENDED OR RANDOM HARANGUE" for the word "speak" and see if it makes sense. [For example, the word is used three times in verse 2 of 1 Cor. 14 -- "For he that MAKES AN EXTENDED OR RANDOM HARANGUE in an unknown tongue MAKES AN EXTENDED OR RANDOM HARANGUE not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he MAKES AN EXTENDED OR RANDOM HARANGUE mysteries." Now, should it be "an extended or random harangue" or "speaks"?] There is absolutely nothing in the context of 1 Cor. 14:34 that would lead one to conclude that the word should be translated in any way other than the way it is translated in the other verses where it is used in 1 Cor. 14 and the rest of the New Testament. If this is the meaning in 1 Cor. 14:34, then it is the only place in the New Testament where it is thus used. There is absolutly no reason that I can see to give it any other meaning than that given in all the other verses where it is used in the New Testament. |