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NASB | 1 Corinthians 14:28 but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 14:28 But if there is no one to interpret, the one [who wishes to speak in a tongue] must keep silent in church; let him speak to himself and to God. |
Subject: Speak in tongue to himself and God? |
Bible Note: Hi Tim, I believe our contention is on 14:28 and the first "and", which is "and let him speak to himself and to God". Based on most Greek translation, this may be a literal word for word translation. http://www.greeknewtestament.com/B46C014.htm#V28 "If and no is interpreter keep silent in church and speak also the God." Notice that I did not punctuate the sentence. Will this make sense? Paul address the speaking in tongue and not interpreting it as a) v2. Not to men but to god for no man can understand b) v7-11 Speaking in tongue has meaning and without meaning. He uses 2 analogies to explain that. The speaker speaking into the air. So with these in mind, would Paul acknowledge that speaking in tongue without interpretation has value? Thus v28, would not make sense to have the speaker to speak to God. The word "speak" has meaning of the speaker has understand his speech. What I understand is the tongue referred in 1 Cor 12-14 is definitely the same tongue in Acts 2. It is a known human language. As quoted 14:21, it is a sign for the unbelievers. All 3 accounts in Acts on speaking in tongues has got this effect of reaching to the unbelievers. 14:23-25 seemed not to gel with 14:21 But you may noticed that the tongues in 14:21 has shifted as a prophesy! Instead of the people not hearing / believe God, the gift of tongues and prophesy brings this effect of reaching to the people and bring them words of conviction and the gospel! I am sorry if I may have confused you, I am not in the best position to explain this verse thoroughly. Hope the explanation helps. David Love - An intelligent willingness to do what is best of the other person. |