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NASB | Romans 5:1 Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 5:1 Therefore, since we have been justified [that is, acquitted of sin, declared blameless before God] by faith, [let us grasp the fact that] we have peace with God [and the joy of reconciliation with Him] through our Lord Jesus Christ (the Messiah, the Anointed). |
Bible Question:
Romans 5 seems to be promoting a salvation by compulsion. Am I not getting this correctly? Note the term "Dominion" in this verse: 17 If, because of the one man's trespass, death exercised dominion through that one, much more surely will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness exercise dominion in life through the one man, Jesus Christ. I think of the word 'dominion' as being devoid of choice. Note the term 'just as' in these verses: 18 Therefore just as one man's trespass led to condemnation for all, so one man's act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all. 19 For just as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous. Adam's sin brought sin automatically on every person born. Does these verses imply that salvation or grace rather, is automatic ' just as' sin is automatic? This seems so in light of the next verse: 20 But law came in, with the result that the trespass multiplied; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, |
Bible Answer: formereverything: I'm not quite sure of what you're asking. What translation do you quote from? I consulted five major translations, KJV, NKJV, NASB, NIV and ESV. None of them used "dominion" in this passage from Romans 5. Read on. Read all of Paul's arguments from Romans 1 through Romans 10. I find no evidence whatever that Paul is teaching any "salvation by compulsion." The term is meaningless to me; I have no idea of what it means to you, but I can't see it as being a biblical concept at all. Paul in Romans 3:23 says that "all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" and in 5:21 he draws the stark contrast between unregenerate and regenerate man: "so that as sin reigned (had dominion?) in death, even so grace would reign (have dominion?) through righteousness to eternal life through Christ Jesus our Lord." But there is no idea of "salvation by compulsion" in any of these passages. Compulsion involves the act or condition of being driven or urged by force. Where does the Bible teach that God forces His salvation upon anyone? "The Spirit and the bride say, 'Come.' Let the one who hears say, 'Come.' And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who wishes take the water of life without cost." [Rev. 22:17]. Do you see any coercion, any "salvation by compulsion" in this Bible invitation? Our Lord said, "Behold, I stand at the door and knock; if anyone hears My voice and opens the door, I will come in to him and will dine with him, and he with Me." [Rev. 3:20]. Again, no coercion, no arm twisting, no hint of "salvation by compulsion." Man is a free moral agent, not a puppet. God does not "compel" him to believe. He does not force His gift of grace on man. He says, "Let the one who wishes take of the water of life without cost." --Hank |