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NASB | Romans 2:12 ¶ For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 2:12 ¶ For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without [regard to] the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged and condemned by the Law. |
Bible Question:
I have two particular passages in the bible I need interpretation for. Can someone explain to me what they mean? Thankyou so much. 1. Romans 2:12 and 14 15 16 'All who sin apart from the law will also perish part from the law and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law AND 2. 1 Corinthians 5:5 ....hand this man over to Satan, so that the sinful nature will be destroyed and his spirit saved on the day of the Lord' What does he mean hand him over to Stan? And why would that destroy his sin but instead make it worse? The his spirit will be saved after he was handed over to Satan? I don't understand. |
Bible Answer: Hello eascusa Hope you dont mind if I answer these questions in 2 separate notes, one for each question. As to question 1. The context of Romans 2 is important to the understanding of these verses I believe. In Romans Ch1v18-3v20 Paul is showing that all people, whatever their background, are "guilty before God" (Romans 3v20). He first deals with the Gentile world in its idolatery etc in Ch1v18-32 and shows how they have rejected the witness of God in Creation - thus they are guilty. Then I believe (some people may have a slightly different understanding than this) he deals with self-righteous people whether Jew or Gentile Ch2v1-16. Then finally, from Ch2v17 through to Ch3v20 he deals with the Jew exclusively, giving a final summing up in the last few verses. Now, in the section of which you speak there are 2 types of people considered - the Jew and the Gentile. The Gentile is "apart from the law" in the sense that the law was not given to him as it was to the nation of Israel. The Jew however doess have the law. How will God deal righteously in judging both? Those who have not the law will not be judged by the law per se, but rather because they have not responded to the entreaties of their Conscience - see v15 "Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another". On the other hand, those who do have the law will be judged by their response to the Commandments contained in it which they were aware of and still refuse to obey. Hope this is helpful In Him David |