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NASB | John 19:31 ¶ Then the Jews, because it was the day of preparation, so that the bodies would not remain on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high day), asked Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 2015 |
John 19:31 ¶ Since it was the day of Preparation [for the Sabbath], in order to prevent the bodies from hanging on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high holy day) the Jews asked Pilate to have their legs broken [to hasten death] and the bodies taken away. |
Bible Question (short): Plural Sabbaths? Passover Clarification? |
Question (full): The question of what day of the week the crucifixion took place is clearly a secondary issue being considered among brothers as to what the Bible actually says, NOT a question of fringe doctrines that divide. Nevertheless, the text needs to be carefully considered in the midst of what appears to be a simple dismissal of varying views (from the recently assumed view) without Biblical support. From the evidence shown in the earlier posts, it seems clear the term "3 days and 3 nights" doesn't in any way directly undermine a Friday (nor can we necessarily calculate the day based on a "wooden" application of this usage). Nevertheless, there still remains a question as to why it's been assumed in recent history to be a Friday; where is the Biblical evidence for Friday? We can say with certainty that the discovery of the empty tomb took place on Sunday -- the first day of the week (John 20:1); the day of the crucifixion is less clear. So far as I know, the only reference that could possibly be interpreted as referring to the day of the week of the crucifixion is the reference to the Sabbath. However, the very wording of the self-same reference ("because it was the day of preparation... for that Sabbath was a high day" -- Jn 19:31) deliberately adds the clarification that this was a special Passover Sabbath, NOT a weekly Sabbath (at the very minimum, NOT MERELY a weekly Sabbath); therefore, any preference for Friday based on the Sabbath is removed by the text itself. John makes a point of stating this at least twice in the passage. Notice also John 19:14, which confirms that the day of Christ's crucifixion was the day before a Passover-related holy day: "Now it was the day of preparation for the Passover." Every time the terms "day of preparation" or "preparation" are used in this passage, the context above requires them to be understood as "preparation for the Passover" NOT "preparation for the Friday evening Sabbath". Can someone with better Greek references at hand verify whether any of the Sabbath references to the crucifixion and resurrection (in John or in the other Gospels) are plural? I recall vaguely (whether correctly or incorrectly I can't verify) that at least one reference did refer to plural "Sabbaths" between the crucifixion and the resurrection, which would further indicate that Friday was not the day of the crucifixion. This should be fairly simple to verify for someone with the right materials or knowledge of Greek; I'm afraid I have neither at my disposal right now. A clearer understanding of the celebration of Passover Sabbaths would also be helpful. (I remember something about there being 2 actual Passover Sabbath days that are separate from the weekly Sabbath, but I know little else about them.) I apologize for my vagueness, but elaboration could really help clarify. |