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NASB | John 12:41 These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 12:41 Isaiah said these things because he saw His glory and spoke about Him. [Is 6:9, 10] |
Bible Question:
In the N.I.V bible it says that Isaiah saw jesus' glory, in reference to Isaiah 6:10. But in most bibles it uses the word "his" instead of "jesus". In the original greek text the word jesus is not mentioned. Did the niv translators have the right to insert the name jesus? How do we know that john was talking about jesus. anti-trinitarians say that to insert the name jesus is unjustified and is doctrinaly based. So my question is "How can we be sure that It was Jesus' glory or that it was just God manifesting hinself? |
Bible Answer: Beethoven. While the passage from Isaiah cited in John 12:41 itself is referring to Isaiah's vision of God in Glory (Is 6:1,4, 9-11),in verse 41 and 42 the antecedent to "his" and "him" is Jesus in verse 37 and 38. John is equated Isaiah's seeing the father with seeing Jesus.This pont is made clear in the larger context of John's Gospel when in John 14:8-14 Jesus says that those who have seen him have seen the Father and He is in the Father and the Father in him. See also Thomas's response to meeting the resurrected Jesus, "My Lord and my God," (John 20:28). It was Thomas who had asked Jesus to show them the Father in John 14:8. The entire focus of John's Gospel from begining to end was the divinity of Jesus. That is why the Jehovah Witnesses have to work so hard on that Gospel to eliminate its main point. Emmaus |