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NASB | John 12:41 These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 12:41 Isaiah said these things because he saw His glory and spoke about Him. [Is 6:9, 10] |
Bible Question:
Hey Guys thanks BUT, No one has really answered the question I asked at all. It is a grammar question. Pronouns have antecedents, so we can understand who they are speaking about. I believe strongly in the diety of Jesus and believe this verse and the context of the entire chapter to show that the Apostle John believed without a shadow of a doubt tha Jesus, the man he spent 3.5 years with was also YHWH in the Old Testament. But my question has to do with the pronouns in the context of this chapter and no one has addressed that yet. It is a very focusd question Any help would be great. Peace and God Bless. John |
Bible Answer: Greetings John! The reasons that the pronouns in John 12:41 are indentified with Christ are contextual, not grammatical. Sometimes the antecedent of a pronoun can be determined in Greek by it's number and gender. However, in this particular case, there are several possible antecedents going back several verses. However, contextually, only Jesus makes sense. The entire passage deals with the issue of belief or non-belief in Jesus. Verse 37 talks about those who would not believe, while verse 42 talks about those who would believe. The quotes from Isaiah are given to show that it is not surprising that many did not believe in Jesus, but was actually foretold. Thus, the pronouns of v. 41 can really only refer to Jesus. Grammatically, they most likely refer to Jesus, but contextually, they must refer to Jesus. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |