Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | John 12:41 These things Isaiah said because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 12:41 Isaiah said these things because he saw His glory and spoke about Him. [Is 6:9, 10] |
Bible Question: In John 12 the entire context seems to be about Jesus. Christian exegetes throughout the ages have said that the pronouns in verse 41, he saw "His" glory, and he spoke of "Him", refer to Jesus. My question is this, Is that true? Do we go along with the flow because this or that man says this is what it means or is there a reason that any body seeking truth should be able to see by simply reading the verse and understanding the context? Is it a grammatical reason? Any answers would be great. |
Bible Answer: Revbray: In v. 41 John is telling us when Isaiah spoke the words of the prophecy in V. 40. "When he saw his glory" I believe refers to: "In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up..." (Isaiah 6:1) In this vision the Lord is seen here in all his glory and majesty, he could say "mine eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts" (Isaiah 6:5) In v. 8 the Lord speaks in plural pronoun "us". I believe we can say that Jesus is repsented in the Godhead and was co-equal and co-eternal and shared in the glory of God. However, when he came to this earth his glory was veiled as he "made himself of no reputation" (Phil.2:7) Thus, I believe in John 12:41 it is referring to Isaiah who saw the glory of the Lord of hosts. Robert |